AILET Practice Set 1
AILET · 2026 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 30
- Total marks
- 32
- Duration
- 90 minutes
- Negative marking
- −1
Subjects: English · General Knowledge · Legal Studies · Aptitude (Reasoning) · Mathematics
Question 1
English · 1 marks · −0.25Choose the correct meaning of the idiom "to bite the bullet."
- A.To avoid a problem
- B.To eat quickly
- C.To argue aggressively
- D.To face a difficult situation with courage
Correct answer: D
Explanation: "Bite the bullet" means to face and endure a painful or unpleasant situation with courage.
Question 2
English · 1 marks · −0.25Fill in the blank: "She has been working here ___ 2019."
- A.for
- B.from
- C.since
- D.at
Correct answer: C
Explanation: "Since" is used with a specific point in time (2019) to indicate the starting point of a continuous action; "for" is used with duration instead.
Question 3
English · 1 marks · −0.25Identify the error in the sentence: "Each of the students have submitted their assignment."
- A."Each of the students"
- B."have submitted" — should be "has submitted"
- C."their assignment"
- D.No error
Correct answer: B
Explanation: "Each" is singular and requires the singular verb "has submitted," not "have submitted."
Question 4
English · 1 marks · −0.25Fill in the blank: "The judge dismissed the case due to lack of ___ evidence."
- A.sufficient
- B.sufficiency
- C.suffice
- D.sufficiently
Correct answer: A
Explanation: "Sufficient" is the adjective form needed to modify the noun "evidence."
Question 5
English · 1 marks · −0.25Arrange the sentences in logical order: (1) This led to widespread protests across the country. (2) The government proposed a new labour law. (3) Eventually, the bill was withdrawn. (4) Workers' unions opposed several of its provisions.
- A.1-2-3-4
- B.2-1-4-3
- C.4-2-1-3
- D.2-4-1-3
Correct answer: D
Explanation: The logical sequence is: proposal (2) leads to union opposition (4), which leads to protests (1), which leads to withdrawal (3).
Question 6
English · 1 marks · −0.25A passage argues that "access to justice is meaningless without access to information," pointing to the Right to Information Act as a complement to fundamental rights. What is the passage's main claim?
- A.The RTI Act replaced fundamental rights
- B.The RTI Act should be repealed
- C.Information access is a necessary complement enabling meaningful access to justice
- D.Justice is impossible in India
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The passage's central claim links informational access to meaningful justice, positioning the RTI Act as a complement, not a replacement.
Question 7
General Knowledge · 1 marks · −0.25The Battle of Plassey (1757), which established British political control in Bengal, was fought between the British East India Company and:
- A.Tipu Sultan
- B.Siraj-ud-Daulah
- C.Bahadur Shah Zafar
- D.Shivaji
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between Robert Clive's forces and Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal.
Question 8
General Knowledge · 1 marks · −0.25The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
- A.26 November 1949
- B.26 January 1950
- C.15 August 1947
- D.2 October 1949
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 (celebrated as Constitution Day) and came into force on 26 January 1950.
Question 9
General Knowledge · 1 marks · −0.25Which is the highest mountain peak in the world?
- A.K2
- B.Kangchenjunga
- C.Nanga Parbat
- D.Mount Everest
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Mount Everest, on the Nepal-China border, at 8,849 m, is the world's highest peak above sea level.
Question 10
General Knowledge · 1 marks · −0.25The chemical symbol for gold is:
- A.Ag
- B.Gd
- C.Au
- D.Go
Correct answer: C
Explanation: "Au" (from the Latin "aurum") is the chemical symbol for gold.
Question 11
General Knowledge · 1 marks · −0.25Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, chaired which key Constituent Assembly committee?
- A.Union Powers Committee
- B.Drafting Committee
- C.States Committee
- D.Steering Committee
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
Question 12
General Knowledge · 1 marks · −0.25The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in which year?
- A.1949
- B.1935
- C.1947
- D.1969
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The RBI, established in 1935 as a shareholders' bank, was nationalized in 1949.
Question 13
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Principle: A person who intentionally aids in the commission of an offence is guilty of abetment. Facts: X provides a weapon to Y, knowing Y intends to commit robbery, and Y commits the robbery using that weapon.
- A.X is not liable since X did not commit the robbery
- B.X is liable only for theft
- C.X is liable only if Y is convicted first
- D.X is liable for abetment of robbery
Correct answer: D
Explanation: X intentionally facilitated the offence with knowledge of Y's intent, satisfying the definition of abetment; liability does not require X to have personally committed the robbery.
Question 14
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Which writ is issued by a court to direct a public authority to perform a duty it has failed to perform?
- A.Habeas Corpus
- B.Certiorari
- C.Mandamus
- D.Prohibition
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Mandamus ("we command") directs a public official or body to perform a public/statutory duty they have failed or refused to perform.
Question 15
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The maxim "Ignorantia juris non excusat" means:
- A.Ignorance of fact excuses
- B.Ignorance of law is no excuse
- C.Justice delayed is justice denied
- D.Let the buyer beware
Correct answer: B
Explanation: This Latin maxim translates to "ignorance of the law is not an excuse," meaning one cannot avoid liability by claiming lack of knowledge of the law.
Question 16
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25"Private defence" as a general exception to criminal liability is available:
- A.Only to the extent necessary to repel the danger, not extending to more harm than necessary
- B.Without any limitation on force used
- C.Only against strangers
- D.Only in cases of theft
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The right of private defence is limited — the force used must be reasonably necessary and proportionate to repel the imminent danger, not excessive.
Question 17
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The standard of care expected in a negligence claim is that of:
- A.A perfectly careful person
- B.An expert in every field
- C.The most cautious person imaginable
- D.A reasonable and prudent person in similar circumstances
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Negligence is judged against the standard of a "reasonable person" exercising ordinary prudence in like circumstances.
Question 18
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A "wagering agreement" under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is:
- A.Valid and enforceable
- B.Voidable at the option of the winner
- C.Void, and no suit can be brought to recover anything won on a wager
- D.Illegal and punishable
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Section 30 declares wagering agreements void, and courts will not entertain suits to recover wager winnings.
Question 19
Aptitude (Reasoning) · 1 marks · −0.25Five friends P, Q, R, S, T sit in a row facing north, from left to right in the order P, Q, R, S, T. Who sits immediately to the right of R?
- A.Q
- B.S
- C.T
- D.P
Correct answer: B
Explanation: In the order P-Q-R-S-T, S sits immediately to the right of R.
Question 20
Aptitude (Reasoning) · 1 marks · −0.25All judges are lawyers. Some lawyers are professors. Which conclusion validly follows?
- A.No definite conclusion about judges and professors can be drawn
- B.Some judges are professors
- C.All professors are judges
- D.All lawyers are judges
Correct answer: A
Explanation: We know all judges are lawyers and some lawyers are professors, but we cannot determine whether the "some lawyers" who are professors overlap with the judges — no definite conclusion follows about judges and professors.
Question 21
Aptitude (Reasoning) · 1 marks · −0.25If in a certain code, "CAT" is written as "DBU", how is "DOG" written in that code?
- A.EQH
- B.FPH
- C.EPI
- D.EPH
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Each letter is shifted forward by 1: D→E, O→P, G→H, giving "EPH".
Question 22
General Knowledge · 3 marks · −1Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
- A.36
- B.40
- C.42
- D.44
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Differences increase by 2 (4, 6, 8, 10, 12), so 30 + 12 = 42; the terms are n(n+1).
Question 23
Aptitude (Reasoning) · 1 marks · −0.25Six people A, B, C, D, E, F sit around a circular table facing the centre, at positions 1 to 6 clockwise. A sits at position 1. B sits three seats clockwise from A. C sits immediately to the right (clockwise) of B. Which position does C occupy?
- A.Position 4
- B.Position 5
- C.Position 6
- D.Position 3
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A is at position 1; three seats clockwise from A is position 4 (1→2→3→4), so B is at position 4. Immediately clockwise of B is position 5, so C is at position 5.
Question 24
Aptitude (Reasoning) · 1 marks · −0.25Statement: "All applicants must submit their forms by 5 PM on Friday to be considered." Conclusion I: Forms submitted after 5 PM on Friday will not be considered. Conclusion II: Some applicants may submit forms early. Which conclusion(s) follow?
- A.Only Conclusion I follows
- B.Only Conclusion II follows
- C.Both conclusions follow
- D.Neither conclusion follows
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The statement directly implies Conclusion I (a deadline rule). Conclusion II is neither stated nor implied — nothing indicates early submission behaviour.
Question 25
Mathematics · 1 marks · −0.25What is the smallest prime number?
- A.0
- B.1
- C.3
- D.2
Correct answer: D
Explanation: 2 is the smallest and only even prime number.
Question 26
Mathematics · 1 marks · −0.25The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:2. If there are 30 boys, how many girls are there?
- A.15
- B.18
- C.20
- D.25
Correct answer: C
Explanation: 3 parts = 30 boys, so 1 part = 10; girls = 2 parts = 20.
Question 27
Mathematics · 1 marks · −0.25Find the simple interest on ₹10,000 at 8% per annum for 3 years.
- A.₹2,000
- B.₹2,400
- C.₹2,800
- D.₹3,200
Correct answer: B
Explanation: SI = (P × R × T)/100 = (10000 × 8 × 3)/100 = ₹2,400.
Question 28
Mathematics · 1 marks · −0.25The average of 5 numbers is 20. If one number is removed, the average of the remaining 4 numbers becomes 18. What was the removed number?
- A.28
- B.22
- C.24
- D.26
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Sum of 5 numbers = 100; sum of remaining 4 numbers = 72; removed number = 100 − 72 = 28.
Question 29
Mathematics · 1 marks · −0.25A bar chart shows monthly sales (in units): Jan-100, Feb-150, Mar-120, Apr-180. What is the average monthly sales over these four months?
- A.130
- B.140
- C.145
- D.137.5
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Total = 100 + 150 + 120 + 180 = 550; average = 550/4 = 137.5.
Question 30
Mathematics · 1 marks · −0.25A right circular cylinder has a radius of 7 cm and height of 10 cm. What is its volume? (Use π = 22/7)
- A.1440 cm³
- B.1640 cm³
- C.1540 cm³
- D.1340 cm³
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Volume = πr²h = (22/7) × 7 × 7 × 10 = 22 × 7 × 10 = 1540 cm³.