CA Intermediate Practice Set 1
CA Intermediate · 2026 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 30
- Total marks
- 30
- Duration
- 240 minutes
- Negative marking
- −0.25
Subjects: Accountancy · Legal Studies · Financial Literacy · Business Studies
Question 1
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25The 'Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements' issued by the ICAI primarily provides the conceptual basis for
- A.Formulation of Accounting Standards and resolving accounting issues not specifically covered
- B.Computation of income tax liability
- C.Preparation of GST returns
- D.Registration of companies
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The Framework assists in formulating Accounting Standards, resolving issues not addressed by a specific standard, and in the preparation and interpretation of financial statements.
Question 2
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25As per AS 3 (Cash Flow Statements), cash flows are classified into operating activities, investing activities and
- A.Extraordinary activities
- B.Financing activities
- C.Capital activities
- D.Trading activities
Correct answer: B
Explanation: AS 3 requires cash flows to be classified under three heads: operating, investing and financing activities.
Question 3
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25As per AS 9 (Revenue Recognition), revenue from the sale of goods is recognised when
- A.The customer places the order
- B.The significant risks and rewards of ownership have been transferred to the buyer
- C.Cash is actually received
- D.The goods are manufactured
Correct answer: B
Explanation: AS 9 requires revenue recognition when the seller has transferred the significant risks and rewards of ownership to the buyer and no significant uncertainty exists regarding consideration.
Question 4
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25As per AS 29, a provision should be recognised when an enterprise has a present obligation as a result of a past event, it is probable that an outflow of resources will be required to settle it, and
- A.A reliable estimate can be made of the amount of the obligation
- B.The shareholders have approved it in the AGM
- C.It relates to a contingent asset
- D.The statute fixes the exact amount
Correct answer: A
Explanation: AS 29 lays down three cumulative conditions for recognising a provision: a present obligation, probable outflow, and a reliable estimate of the amount.
Question 5
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company can fund the buy-back of its own shares out of
- A.Free reserves, the securities premium account, or the proceeds of an issue of any shares/specified securities other than the same kind being bought back
- B.Free reserves only
- C.The securities premium account only
- D.Fresh borrowings from banks
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Section 68 permits buy-back to be financed from free reserves, the securities premium account, or proceeds of an earlier issue of shares/specified securities other than the same kind being bought back.
Question 6
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25In a Consolidated Balance Sheet, where the cost of the parent's investment in a subsidiary exceeds the parent's share in the subsidiary's net assets on the date of acquisition, the excess is recognised as
- A.Goodwill
- B.Capital Reserve
- C.General Reserve
- D.Minority Interest
Correct answer: A
Explanation: As per AS 21, if the cost of investment exceeds the parent's share of the subsidiary's equity on acquisition, the difference is recognised as goodwill in the consolidated financial statements.
Question 7
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25An individual qualifies as 'Resident and Ordinarily Resident' in India only after satisfying at least one basic condition of residence in India AND
- A.Both of the specified additional conditions relating to residence in earlier years
- B.Being an Indian citizen
- C.Holding a valid PAN
- D.Having filed a return of income in the previous year
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Under the Income-tax Act, an individual satisfying a basic condition becomes 'Resident and Ordinarily Resident' only if both additional conditions (residence in India in at least 2 of the preceding 10 years, and 730 days or more in the preceding 7 years) are also satisfied.
Question 8
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under the head 'Income from House Property', the standard deduction allowed towards repairs and maintenance, irrespective of actual expenditure, is
- A.30% of the Net Annual Value
- B.30% of the Gross Annual Value
- C.20% of the Net Annual Value
- D.Actual expenses incurred, subject to proof
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Section 24(a) allows a flat standard deduction of 30% of the Net Annual Value, regardless of the actual expenditure incurred.
Question 9
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25For computing 'Profits and Gains of Business or Profession', depreciation on business assets is generally allowed as per the
- A.Written Down Value (WDV) method prescribed under the Income-tax Rules
- B.Straight Line Method only
- C.Units of Production Method
- D.No depreciation is allowed under the Income-tax Act
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Under the Income-tax Act, depreciation on most block of assets is computed using the Written Down Value method at rates prescribed in the Income-tax Rules.
Question 10
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25For equity shares listed on a recognised stock exchange in India, the asset is treated as a long-term capital asset if held for more than
- A.12 months
- B.24 months
- C.36 months
- D.6 months
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Listed equity shares (and certain other specified securities) are treated as long-term capital assets if held for more than 12 months under Section 2(42A).
Question 11
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Long-term capital loss can be set off only against
- A.Any head of income
- B.Long-term capital gains
- C.Short-term capital gains only
- D.Income from business or profession
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Section 74 provides that long-term capital loss can be set off only against long-term capital gains, whether in the same year or on carry forward.
Question 12
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25GST in India is structured as a
- A.Single, unified GST levied only by the Central Government
- B.Dual GST system, with CGST and SGST/UTGST levied concurrently
- C.Triple GST system levied by the Centre, States and local bodies
- D.Tax applicable only to services, not goods
Correct answer: B
Explanation: India follows a dual GST model, where CGST is levied by the Centre and SGST/UTGST by the States/UTs on the same intra-State supply, and IGST on inter-State supply.
Question 13
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under Section 17(5) of the CGST Act, Input Tax Credit is generally blocked in respect of
- A.Raw materials used in the course of business
- B.Motor vehicles used for personal purposes
- C.Capital goods used exclusively for business
- D.Input services used for taxable outward supplies
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Section 17(5) blocks ITC on several specified items, including motor vehicles and goods/services used for personal consumption.
Question 14
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under Activity-Based Costing (ABC), overhead costs are assigned to products primarily on the basis of
- A.Cost drivers/activities that cause the costs to be incurred
- B.Direct labour hours alone
- C.Machine hours alone
- D.A single plant-wide blanket overhead rate
Correct answer: A
Explanation: ABC assigns overheads to cost objects based on the activities (cost drivers) that actually cause them, giving a more accurate cost allocation than a single blanket rate.
Question 15
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Under the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum number of directors required on the Board of a public company is
- A.2
- B.3
- C.1
- D.7
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Section 149(1) requires a public company to have a minimum of 3 directors (a private company needs 2, and an OPC needs 1).
Question 16
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25As per Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, an eligible company must spend, in every financial year, at least ___ of its average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.
- A.1%
- B.2%
- C.5%
- D.10%
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Section 135(5) mandates a minimum CSR spend of 2% of the average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years.
Question 17
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The first auditor of a company (other than a Government company) must be appointed by the Board of Directors within
- A.30 days from the date of registration of the company
- B.6 months from the date of registration
- C.1 year from the date of registration
- D.90 days from the date of registration
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Section 139(6) requires the Board to appoint the first auditor within 30 days of the company's registration.
Question 18
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25In a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), the liability of a partner is limited to
- A.The partner's agreed contribution to the LLP
- B.Unlimited personal liability, as in a traditional partnership
- C.Double the amount of the partner's contribution
- D.The total assets of the LLP, with additional personal liability
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Under the LLP Act, 2008, a partner's liability is limited to the extent of the agreed contribution, except in cases of fraud.
Question 19
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The General Clauses Act, 1897 primarily serves to
- A.Lay down general rules for the interpretation and construction of Central Acts and Regulations
- B.Prescribe corporate tax rates
- C.Govern the incorporation of companies
- D.Provide the framework for filing GST returns
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The General Clauses Act, 1897 provides standard definitions and general rules of construction applicable across Central legislation, avoiding repetition in each Act.
Question 20
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The primary objective of modern financial management is generally regarded as
- A.Profit maximisation alone
- B.Wealth maximisation of shareholders
- C.Sales maximisation
- D.Cost minimisation alone
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Wealth maximisation, which considers risk, timing and the time value of money, is regarded as a superior and more comprehensive objective than mere profit maximisation.
Question 21
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The cost of retained earnings is generally treated as approximately equal to the
- A.Cost of equity capital
- B.Cost of debt capital
- C.Bank lending rate
- D.Zero, since retained earnings involve no external cost
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Retained earnings belong to equity shareholders; their opportunity cost is therefore treated as approximately equal to the cost of equity capital.
Question 22
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The Net Present Value (NPV) of a project is calculated by discounting expected future cash flows at the
- A.Prevailing bank rate
- B.Cost of capital (discount rate)
- C.Rate of inflation
- D.Applicable tax rate
Correct answer: B
Explanation: NPV discounts a project's future cash inflows and outflows at the firm's cost of capital (or a chosen discount rate) to assess its present value.
Question 23
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The 'operating cycle' of a manufacturing firm refers to the time period between
- A.The purchase of raw materials and the receipt of cash from the sale of finished goods
- B.Incorporation of the company and its first sale
- C.Two consecutive dividend declarations
- D.Two consecutive audit reports
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The operating cycle measures the time taken to convert raw materials into finished goods, sell them, and collect cash — a key input for working capital estimation.
Question 24
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25According to Walter's Model of dividend policy, dividend policy affects the value of a firm's shares when the firm's internal rate of return (r) is
- A.Not equal to its cost of capital (Ke)
- B.Always equal to Ke
- C.Always zero
- D.Irrelevant regardless of the relationship between r and Ke
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Walter's Model shows that dividend policy is relevant (affects share value) only when r ≠ Ke; when r = Ke, dividend policy has no effect on value.
Question 25
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Strategic management is primarily concerned with decisions relating to the
- A.Long-term direction, scope and competitive positioning of an organisation
- B.Routine day-to-day clerical operations
- C.Preparation of the daily cash book
- D.Attendance record of employees
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Strategic management deals with the long-term direction and scope of an organisation to achieve advantage through its configuration of resources within a changing environment.
Question 26
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A SWOT analysis evaluates an organisation's Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and
- A.Targets
- B.Threats
- C.Trends
- D.Tactics
Correct answer: B
Explanation: SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats — an internal and external appraisal framework used in strategic analysis.
Question 27
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A strategy in which a firm concentrates on serving a narrow market segment more effectively than broad-based competitors is known as
- A.Cost leadership strategy
- B.Focus (niche) strategy
- C.Differentiation strategy
- D.Diversification strategy
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Under Porter's generic strategies, a focus strategy targets a narrow segment, applying either cost leadership or differentiation within that niche.
Question 28
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Which of the following tools translates an organisation's strategy into performance measures across financial, customer, internal process, and learning-and-growth perspectives?
- A.Balanced Scorecard
- B.Trial Balance
- C.Break-even Chart
- D.Gantt Chart
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The Balanced Scorecard, developed by Kaplan and Norton, links strategy to performance measurement across four key perspectives.
Question 29
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Functional strategies within an organisation are typically formulated at the
- A.Corporate level, applicable to all businesses
- B.Departmental/operational level (e.g., marketing, HR, finance)
- C.Board level exclusively, without departmental input
- D.Shareholder level
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Functional strategies are formulated by individual functional departments to support the broader business and corporate strategies.
Question 30
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Michael Porter's Five Forces framework for industry analysis does NOT include which of the following as a distinct, separate force?
- A.Threat of new entrants
- B.Bargaining power of suppliers
- C.Government regulation, as a standalone sixth force
- D.Threat of substitute products
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Porter's Five Forces are: threat of new entrants, bargaining power of suppliers, bargaining power of buyers, threat of substitutes, and rivalry among existing competitors. Government/regulatory influence is considered within these forces, not as a separate sixth force.