CLAT PG Practice Set 1

CLAT PG · 2026 · with answers and explanations

questions
30
Total marks
30
Duration
120 minutes
Negative marking
−0.25

Subjects: Legal Studies

Question 1

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Article 21 of the Constitution, as interpreted in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), requires that any procedure depriving a person of life or personal liberty must be:

  1. A.Prescribed by any law, regardless of fairness
  2. B.Fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary or fanciful
  3. C.Approved by the President alone
  4. D.Applicable only to citizens

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Maneka Gandhi expanded Article 21 to require that "procedure established by law" be fair, just, and reasonable, linking Articles 14, 19, and 21.

Question 2

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Which Article lists the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens?

  1. A.Article 51A
  2. B.Article 48A
  3. C.Article 32A
  4. D.Article 368A

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Article 51A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976), enumerates the Fundamental Duties of citizens.

Question 3

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), the Supreme Court struck down a clause of a constitutional amendment for violating the basic structure because it:

  1. A.Increased the retirement age of judges
  2. B.Abolished the right to property
  3. C.Created new states
  4. D.Sought to validate the Prime Minister's election by placing it beyond judicial review, violating free and fair elections/rule of law

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Clause 4 of the 39th Amendment, which immunized the Prime Minister's election from judicial scrutiny, was struck down as violative of the basic structure (rule of law and free and fair elections).

Question 4

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under Article 356, President's Rule can be imposed in a state on the ground that:

  1. A.The state government has lost a no-confidence motion in the Assembly only
  2. B.The Chief Minister has resigned voluntarily
  3. C.The governance of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
  4. D.There is a natural disaster in the state

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Article 356 permits President's Rule when the President is satisfied (on the Governor's report or otherwise) that the constitutional machinery has failed in a state.

Question 5

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

John Austin's command theory of law, which views law as the command of a sovereign backed by sanction, is most closely associated with which school of jurisprudence?

  1. A.Natural Law School
  2. B.Analytical/Positivist School
  3. C.Sociological School
  4. D.Historical School

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Austin's theory that law is the command of a sovereign backed by sanction is foundational to the Analytical/Positivist school.

Question 6

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The doctrine of "stare decisis" primarily concerns which source of law?

  1. A.Judicial Precedent
  2. B.Custom
  3. C.Legislation
  4. D.Personal Law

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Stare decisis ("to stand by things decided") is the principle that courts follow precedents set by earlier judicial decisions.

Question 7

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

According to Salmond's analysis, which of the following best distinguishes "possession" from "ownership"?

  1. A.Possession is purely a legal concept while ownership is factual
  2. B.They are identical concepts under Indian law
  3. C.Possession always requires ownership
  4. D.Possession is a de facto exercise of control over a thing, while ownership is the de jure (legal) right to it

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Salmond distinguished possession (factual/physical control, comprising corpus and animus) from ownership (the legal right recognized and protected by law), which may exist independently of possession.

Question 8

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

In Indian contract law, when is a contract made through post considered complete as against the proposer (offeror)?

  1. A.When the acceptance is received by the proposer
  2. B.When the offer is made
  3. C.When the acceptance is posted by the acceptor
  4. D.When the contract is signed by both parties

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when the letter of acceptance is posted (put in the course of transmission) by the acceptor.

Question 9

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

An agreement entered into under "undue influence" as defined in Section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is:

  1. A.Void ab initio
  2. B.Voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused
  3. C.Automatically valid
  4. D.Illegal

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Section 19A provides that agreements caused by undue influence are voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.

Question 10

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, breach of a "condition" entitles the aggrieved party to:

  1. A.Treat the contract as repudiated and also claim damages, since a condition is essential to the main purpose of the contract
  2. B.Only claim damages, not repudiate the contract
  3. C.No remedy at all
  4. D.Only rescind the contract without claiming damages

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A condition is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract; under Section 12(2), its breach gives the aggrieved party the right to treat the contract as repudiated and also claim damages.

Question 11

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

As per the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, specific performance of a contract is now:

  1. A.A discretionary remedy granted only in exceptional cases
  2. B.Abolished entirely
  3. C.Available only for contracts related to immovable property
  4. D.The general rule, no longer a purely discretionary remedy, subject to specified exceptions

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The 2018 amendment substituted Section 10, making specific performance the general rule rather than a purely discretionary exception, subject to statutory exceptions.

Question 12

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the general exceptions to criminal liability, an act done by a child under what age is not considered an offence at all (absolute immunity)?

  1. A.Under 12 years
  2. B.Under 10 years
  3. C.Under 7 years
  4. D.Under 18 years

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Section 82 IPC (now Section 20 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita) provides that nothing is an offence done by a child under 7 years of age.

Question 13

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

"Culpable homicide" is distinguished from "murder" primarily on the basis of:

  1. A.The weapon used
  2. B.The degree of intention/knowledge and the presence of specific circumstances enumerated for murder
  3. C.Whether the victim survives
  4. D.The relationship between accused and victim

Correct answer: B

Explanation: All murder is culpable homicide, but not all culpable homicide is murder; the distinction (Section 299 vs 300 IPC, and their BNS equivalents) turns on the degree of intention or knowledge and specific statutory circumstances/exceptions.

Question 14

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under criminal procedure, an offence for which a police officer may arrest without a warrant is called:

  1. A.Cognizable offence
  2. B.Non-cognizable offence
  3. C.Compoundable offence
  4. D.Bailable offence

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A cognizable offence permits police to arrest without a warrant and investigate without prior court permission, as per the CrPC/BNSS classification.

Question 15

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Indian Evidence Act (and the corresponding Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam), a confession made to a police officer is:

  1. A.Always admissible
  2. B.Admissible only if in writing
  3. C.Admissible only if made voluntarily to a magistrate
  4. D.Generally not admissible against the accused, subject to limited statutory exceptions

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Section 25 of the Evidence Act (and its BSA equivalent) bars confessions made to police officers from being proved against the accused, save for narrow exceptions such as facts discovered under Section 27.

Question 16

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Article 38(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice lists the sources of international law. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sources listed there?

  1. A.International treaties/conventions
  2. B.International custom
  3. C.Executive orders of powerful states
  4. D.General principles of law recognized by civilized nations

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Article 38(1) lists treaties, custom, and general principles as primary sources (with judicial decisions and juristic writings as subsidiary means) — not unilateral executive orders of powerful states.

Question 17

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

How many permanent members does the UN Security Council have?

  1. A.10
  2. B.5
  3. C.15
  4. D.7

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The UN Security Council has 5 permanent members (China, France, Russia, UK, USA) and 10 non-permanent members, totalling 15.

Question 18

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under UNCLOS, 1982, the breadth of the territorial sea that a coastal state may claim, measured from baselines, is:

  1. A.Up to 12 nautical miles
  2. B.Up to 200 nautical miles
  3. C.Up to 24 nautical miles
  4. D.Up to 350 nautical miles

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Article 3 of UNCLOS permits coastal states to establish a territorial sea up to 12 nautical miles from baselines.

Question 19

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (the Oleum Gas Leak case), the Supreme Court evolved which principle, going beyond strict liability?

  1. A.Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur
  2. B.Doctrine of Sovereign Immunity
  3. C.Contributory Negligence
  4. D.Absolute Liability, with no exceptions applicable, for enterprises engaged in hazardous activities

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The Court laid down the rule of Absolute Liability for hazardous industries, which admits no exceptions, unlike the exceptions available under Rylands v. Fletcher's strict liability.

Question 20

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

In an action for defamation, which of the following is generally a complete defence?

  1. A.The statement was made in anger
  2. B.The statement was widely believed
  3. C.Justification/truth of the statement, made in public interest
  4. D.The defendant did not intend harm

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Truth (justification) is a complete defence to a civil defamation claim, since falsity is an essential ingredient of the tort.

Question 21

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for a three-tier redressal mechanism consisting of:

  1. A.Only District Courts
  2. B.District, State, and National Commissions
  3. C.High Court and Supreme Court only
  4. D.Municipal, State, and Central Tribunals

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The Act establishes District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions, State Commissions, and the National Commission.

Question 22

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following is a ground for divorce available to both spouses?

  1. A.Cruelty
  2. B.Non-payment of dowry
  3. C.Different caste
  4. D.Inter-religious friendship

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act lists cruelty as a ground for divorce available to either spouse.

Question 23

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The Supreme Court in Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) declared which practice unconstitutional?

  1. A.Nikah Halala
  2. B.Mehr
  3. C.Polygamy
  4. D.Instant Triple Talaq (Talaq-e-Biddat)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The Supreme Court held instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) unconstitutional as arbitrary and violative of Article 14, by a 3:2 majority.

Question 24

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a "gift" of immovable property must be effected by:

  1. A.Oral declaration alone
  2. B.Payment of stamp duty only
  3. C.A registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses
  4. D.Delivery of possession alone

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Section 123 requires that a gift of immovable property be made through a registered instrument, signed by the donor and attested by at least two witnesses.

Question 25

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Registration Act, 1908, registration is compulsory for which of the following documents?

  1. A.A will
  2. B.A sale deed of immovable property valued above ₹100
  3. C.A power of attorney for personal use
  4. D.A promissory note

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Section 17 makes registration compulsory for instruments (like sale deeds) transferring immovable property worth more than ₹100; wills are expressly exempted, registration being optional for them.

Question 26

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The principle of "audi alteram partem" in administrative law requires that:

  1. A.No person shall be condemned unheard; both sides must be given a fair hearing
  2. B.Decisions must be recorded in writing
  3. C.Only the government's side must be heard
  4. D.Delegated legislation must be published

Correct answer: A

Explanation: "Audi alteram partem" (hear the other side) is a core principle of natural justice requiring a fair opportunity of hearing to all affected parties before an adverse decision is taken.

Question 27

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The National Green Tribunal was established under which Act?

  1. A.Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  2. B.Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  3. C.Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
  4. D.National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 established the NGT for effective and expeditious disposal of environmental cases.

Question 28

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, the standard term of protection for a patent (post-TRIPS amendment) is:

  1. A.14 years from the date of grant
  2. B.10 years, renewable
  3. C.20 years from the date of filing
  4. D.Perpetual, subject to renewal fees

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Section 53 provides a patent term of 20 years from the date of filing of the application, in compliance with India's TRIPS obligations.

Question 29

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Copyright Act, 1957, the general term of copyright protection for a literary work is the author's lifetime plus:

  1. A.25 years
  2. B.60 years
  3. C.50 years
  4. D.70 years

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Section 22 provides that copyright in a literary work subsists for the author's lifetime plus 60 years from the beginning of the calendar year following death.

Question 30

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, "lay-off" refers to:

  1. A.Failure, refusal, or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman due to reasons like shortage of raw material, breakdown of machinery, etc., without terminating employment
  2. B.Permanent termination of a workman
  3. C.A worker resigning voluntarily
  4. D.Employer shutting down the factory permanently

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Section 2(kkk) defines "lay-off" as the employer's failure, refusal, or inability to provide work due to specified reasons (such as shortage of raw material or breakdown of machinery), without severing the employment relationship.

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