CMA Intermediate Practice Set 1
CMA Intermediate · 2026 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 30
- Total marks
- 30
- Duration
- 240 minutes
- Negative marking
- −0.25
Subjects: Legal Studies · Accountancy · Business Studies · Financial Literacy
Question 1
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A contract of guarantee, as a special contract, typically involves how many parties?
- A.Two
- B.Three — the creditor, the principal debtor and the surety
- C.Four
- D.One
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A contract of guarantee involves three parties: the creditor, the principal debtor, and the surety, who undertakes to discharge the debtor's liability in case of default.
Question 2
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25As per Section 103 of the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for a general meeting of a public company having more than 1,000 but up to 5,000 members is
- A.5 members
- B.15 members
- C.30 members
- D.2 members
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Section 103 prescribes quorum based on membership: 5 members if up to 1,000 members, 15 members if between 1,001 and 5,000 members, and 30 members if more than 5,000 members.
Question 3
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The Employees' Provident Fund scheme in India is governed primarily under the
- A.Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
- B.Factories Act, 1948
- C.Minimum Wages Act, 1948
- D.Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The EPF & MP Act, 1952 provides for the institution of provident fund, pension fund and deposit-linked insurance for employees.
Question 4
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Under the Competition Act, 2002, an agreement between enterprises that causes an 'appreciable adverse effect on competition' (AAEC) in India is
- A.Void
- B.Voidable at the discretion of the parties
- C.Valid but subject to additional tax
- D.Automatically approved by the Competition Commission
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 declares any agreement causing an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India to be void.
Question 5
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25In India, Accounting Standards for companies are notified based on recommendations of the
- A.Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) / National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)
- B.Reserve Bank of India
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Accounting Standards are formulated by the ICAI's Accounting Standards Board and, for companies, notified by the Central Government based on recommendations of NFRA/ICAI.
Question 6
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25'Calls-in-Arrears' is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company as a deduction from
- A.Called-up capital
- B.Reserves and Surplus
- C.Fixed assets
- D.Current liabilities
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Calls-in-Arrears represents the amount not yet paid by shareholders on calls made and is deducted from called-up capital to arrive at paid-up capital.
Question 7
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25As per Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013, the Balance Sheet of a company must be prepared in
- A.Horizontal (T) form only
- B.Vertical form
- C.Either horizontal or vertical form, at management's discretion
- D.Any format the auditor prefers
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Schedule III mandates the vertical format for presentation of the Balance Sheet and Statement of Profit and Loss of companies.
Question 8
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under AS 3, the purchase of fixed assets (property, plant and equipment) is classified as a cash flow arising from
- A.Operating activities
- B.Investing activities
- C.Financing activities
- D.Extraordinary items
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Cash paid to acquire fixed assets is classified as an investing activity, since it relates to the acquisition of long-term assets.
Question 9
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25For income-tax purposes in India, the 'previous year' refers to the financial year
- A.Immediately preceding the relevant assessment year
- B.Immediately following the relevant assessment year
- C.Always equal to the calendar year
- D.Chosen freely by the assessee
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Under Section 3 of the Income-tax Act, the previous year is uniformly the financial year (April to March) immediately preceding the assessment year.
Question 10
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Rental income from letting out a residential house property is chargeable to tax under the head
- A.Income from Salary
- B.Income from House Property
- C.Income from Other Sources
- D.Capital Gains
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Section 22 charges the annual value of house property (owned by the assessee) under the head 'Income from House Property'.
Question 11
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25GST is levied in India on the
- A.Supply of goods or services or both
- B.Manufacture of goods only
- C.Sale of immovable property only
- D.Import of capital goods only
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Under the GST law, tax is levied on 'supply' of goods or services or both, replacing the earlier taxable events of manufacture, sale and provision of service.
Question 12
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Form GSTR-3B, filed by regular taxpayers, is a
- A.Monthly (or quarterly) summary return for reporting outward and inward supplies and paying tax
- B.One-time registration application
- C.Annual audit report
- D.Return filed only at the time of business closure
Correct answer: A
Explanation: GSTR-3B is a simplified summary return used by taxpayers to declare summary GST liabilities and pay tax periodically.
Question 13
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25The primary objective of cost accounting is the
- A.Ascertainment of cost and exercise of cost control
- B.Conduct of statutory external audit
- C.Filing of income tax returns
- D.Issue of shares to the public
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Cost accounting aims at ascertaining the cost of products/services and enabling cost control and cost reduction for managerial decision-making.
Question 14
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25The costing method suitable for production carried out against specific customer orders, where each job has distinguishable characteristics, is
- A.Process Costing
- B.Job Costing
- C.Operating Costing
- D.Unit/Output Costing
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Job costing is used where production is undertaken as per specific customer requirements, with each job treated as a separate cost unit.
Question 15
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25In process costing, the loss that is inherent and unavoidable under normal operating conditions is called
- A.Abnormal loss
- B.Normal loss
- C.Abnormal gain
- D.Scrap value
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Normal loss is the loss that is expected and unavoidable under efficient operating conditions, and its cost is absorbed by the good units produced.
Question 16
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under marginal costing, the 'contribution' per unit is calculated as
- A.Selling price per unit minus variable cost per unit
- B.Selling price per unit minus total cost per unit
- C.Fixed cost minus variable cost
- D.Selling price per unit minus fixed cost per unit
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Contribution = Selling Price − Variable Cost per unit; it represents the amount available to cover fixed costs and generate profit.
Question 17
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25A favourable material price variance arises when
- A.The actual price paid for materials is less than the standard price
- B.The actual price paid exceeds the standard price
- C.The actual quantity used exceeds the standard quantity
- D.Actual output falls short of standard output
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Material Price Variance = (Standard Price − Actual Price) × Actual Quantity; it is favourable when the actual price paid is lower than the standard price.
Question 18
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25A budget designed to adjust automatically in accordance with the level of activity actually attained is known as a
- A.Fixed budget
- B.Flexible budget
- C.Zero-based budget
- D.Master budget
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A flexible budget is prepared for different levels of activity and is adjusted (flexed) to the actual level attained, enabling meaningful variance analysis.
Question 19
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Operations planning is primarily concerned with the
- A.Efficient utilisation of resources to produce goods or services
- B.Recruitment of sales staff exclusively
- C.Design of advertising campaigns
- D.Formulation of dividend policy
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Operations planning and control focuses on efficiently converting inputs (materials, labour, machinery) into outputs (goods/services).
Question 20
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model determines the order quantity that minimises the total of
- A.Ordering cost and carrying (holding) cost
- B.Selling price and profit margin
- C.Wages and salaries
- D.Excise duty and customs duty
Correct answer: A
Explanation: EOQ balances ordering cost (which falls with larger, less frequent orders) against carrying cost (which rises with larger inventory), minimising their total.
Question 21
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Total Quality Management (TQM) emphasises
- A.Continuous improvement in quality, involving all employees across the organisation
- B.Quality checks conducted solely by inspectors at the final stage
- C.One-time quality audits with no follow-up
- D.Cost-cutting at the expense of product quality
Correct answer: A
Explanation: TQM is a management philosophy that seeks continuous, organisation-wide improvement in quality, involving every employee, not just a quality control department.
Question 22
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Strategy formulation, as a stage of strategic management, primarily involves setting the organisation's
- A.Mission, objectives, and strategic choices
- B.Daily work schedules only
- C.Annual budget alone
- D.Payroll structure
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Strategy formulation involves defining the mission and objectives of the organisation and selecting appropriate strategies to achieve them.
Question 23
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Business Process Re-engineering (BPR) primarily involves
- A.Radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance
- B.Minor, incremental changes to existing processes
- C.Complete outsourcing of all business functions
- D.Deliberately reducing product quality to cut costs
Correct answer: A
Explanation: BPR, as conceived by Hammer and Champy, involves fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in cost, quality, service and speed.
Question 24
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A key element in evaluating whether a chosen strategy is working effectively is
- A.Comparing actual performance against pre-set standards and objectives
- B.Ignoring deviations between actual and planned performance
- C.Avoiding periodic performance reviews
- D.Reducing communication between departments
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Strategy evaluation involves measuring actual performance against established standards and taking corrective action where deviations occur.
Question 25
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The concept of 'time value of money' implies that a rupee received today is worth
- A.More than a rupee to be received in the future
- B.Less than a rupee to be received in the future
- C.Exactly equal to a rupee received in the future
- D.Unrelated to a rupee received in the future
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Money has time value because a rupee today can be invested to earn a return, making it worth more than the same rupee received later.
Question 26
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is computed by weighting the cost of each source of capital by its
- A.Proportion in the firm's overall capital structure
- B.Face value alone
- C.Market capitalisation of equity alone
- D.Applicable corporate tax rate alone
Correct answer: A
Explanation: WACC is the weighted average of the costs of all sources of long-term capital (equity, preference, debt), each weighted by its proportion in the capital structure.
Question 27
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The 'Payback Period' method of evaluating capital budgeting proposals measures
- A.The time required to recover the initial investment from a project's cash inflows
- B.The internal rate of return of the project
- C.The profitability index of the project
- D.The firm's cost of capital
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The payback period indicates how long it takes for a project's cumulative cash inflows to equal the initial investment outlay.
Question 28
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25Net working capital of a firm is calculated as
- A.Current Assets minus Current Liabilities
- B.Fixed Assets minus Current Liabilities
- C.Total Assets minus Total Liabilities
- D.Current Assets plus Current Liabilities
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Net working capital represents the surplus of current assets over current liabilities, indicating short-term liquidity.
Question 29
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25According to the Modigliani-Miller (MM) hypothesis, under the assumptions of a perfect capital market, the value of a firm is
- A.Independent of its dividend policy
- B.Solely determined by its dividend payout ratio
- C.Maximised only when the payout ratio is 100%
- D.Maximised only when the payout ratio is zero
Correct answer: A
Explanation: MM's dividend irrelevance theory holds that, in a perfect capital market with no taxes or transaction costs, a firm's value depends only on its earning power and investment decisions, not on how earnings are split between dividends and retained earnings.
Question 30
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25Business data analytics that uses historical data and statistical techniques to forecast future outcomes or trends is called
- A.Descriptive analytics
- B.Predictive analytics
- C.Prescriptive analytics
- D.None of the above
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Predictive analytics uses historical data, statistical algorithms and machine learning to identify the likelihood of future outcomes.