CMA Intermediate Practice Set 1

CMA Intermediate · 2026 · with answers and explanations

questions
30
Total marks
30
Duration
240 minutes
Negative marking
−0.25

Subjects: Legal Studies · Accountancy · Business Studies · Financial Literacy

Question 1

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A contract of guarantee, as a special contract, typically involves how many parties?

  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three — the creditor, the principal debtor and the surety
  3. C.Four
  4. D.One

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A contract of guarantee involves three parties: the creditor, the principal debtor, and the surety, who undertakes to discharge the debtor's liability in case of default.

Question 2

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

As per Section 103 of the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for a general meeting of a public company having more than 1,000 but up to 5,000 members is

  1. A.5 members
  2. B.15 members
  3. C.30 members
  4. D.2 members

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Section 103 prescribes quorum based on membership: 5 members if up to 1,000 members, 15 members if between 1,001 and 5,000 members, and 30 members if more than 5,000 members.

Question 3

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The Employees' Provident Fund scheme in India is governed primarily under the

  1. A.Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
  2. B.Factories Act, 1948
  3. C.Minimum Wages Act, 1948
  4. D.Payment of Bonus Act, 1965

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The EPF & MP Act, 1952 provides for the institution of provident fund, pension fund and deposit-linked insurance for employees.

Question 4

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Competition Act, 2002, an agreement between enterprises that causes an 'appreciable adverse effect on competition' (AAEC) in India is

  1. A.Void
  2. B.Voidable at the discretion of the parties
  3. C.Valid but subject to additional tax
  4. D.Automatically approved by the Competition Commission

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 declares any agreement causing an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India to be void.

Question 5

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

In India, Accounting Standards for companies are notified based on recommendations of the

  1. A.Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) / National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)
  2. B.Reserve Bank of India
  3. C.Securities and Exchange Board of India
  4. D.Ministry of Labour and Employment

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Accounting Standards are formulated by the ICAI's Accounting Standards Board and, for companies, notified by the Central Government based on recommendations of NFRA/ICAI.

Question 6

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

'Calls-in-Arrears' is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company as a deduction from

  1. A.Called-up capital
  2. B.Reserves and Surplus
  3. C.Fixed assets
  4. D.Current liabilities

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Calls-in-Arrears represents the amount not yet paid by shareholders on calls made and is deducted from called-up capital to arrive at paid-up capital.

Question 7

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

As per Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013, the Balance Sheet of a company must be prepared in

  1. A.Horizontal (T) form only
  2. B.Vertical form
  3. C.Either horizontal or vertical form, at management's discretion
  4. D.Any format the auditor prefers

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Schedule III mandates the vertical format for presentation of the Balance Sheet and Statement of Profit and Loss of companies.

Question 8

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

Under AS 3, the purchase of fixed assets (property, plant and equipment) is classified as a cash flow arising from

  1. A.Operating activities
  2. B.Investing activities
  3. C.Financing activities
  4. D.Extraordinary items

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Cash paid to acquire fixed assets is classified as an investing activity, since it relates to the acquisition of long-term assets.

Question 9

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

For income-tax purposes in India, the 'previous year' refers to the financial year

  1. A.Immediately preceding the relevant assessment year
  2. B.Immediately following the relevant assessment year
  3. C.Always equal to the calendar year
  4. D.Chosen freely by the assessee

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Under Section 3 of the Income-tax Act, the previous year is uniformly the financial year (April to March) immediately preceding the assessment year.

Question 10

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

Rental income from letting out a residential house property is chargeable to tax under the head

  1. A.Income from Salary
  2. B.Income from House Property
  3. C.Income from Other Sources
  4. D.Capital Gains

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Section 22 charges the annual value of house property (owned by the assessee) under the head 'Income from House Property'.

Question 11

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

GST is levied in India on the

  1. A.Supply of goods or services or both
  2. B.Manufacture of goods only
  3. C.Sale of immovable property only
  4. D.Import of capital goods only

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Under the GST law, tax is levied on 'supply' of goods or services or both, replacing the earlier taxable events of manufacture, sale and provision of service.

Question 12

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

Form GSTR-3B, filed by regular taxpayers, is a

  1. A.Monthly (or quarterly) summary return for reporting outward and inward supplies and paying tax
  2. B.One-time registration application
  3. C.Annual audit report
  4. D.Return filed only at the time of business closure

Correct answer: A

Explanation: GSTR-3B is a simplified summary return used by taxpayers to declare summary GST liabilities and pay tax periodically.

Question 13

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

The primary objective of cost accounting is the

  1. A.Ascertainment of cost and exercise of cost control
  2. B.Conduct of statutory external audit
  3. C.Filing of income tax returns
  4. D.Issue of shares to the public

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Cost accounting aims at ascertaining the cost of products/services and enabling cost control and cost reduction for managerial decision-making.

Question 14

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

The costing method suitable for production carried out against specific customer orders, where each job has distinguishable characteristics, is

  1. A.Process Costing
  2. B.Job Costing
  3. C.Operating Costing
  4. D.Unit/Output Costing

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Job costing is used where production is undertaken as per specific customer requirements, with each job treated as a separate cost unit.

Question 15

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

In process costing, the loss that is inherent and unavoidable under normal operating conditions is called

  1. A.Abnormal loss
  2. B.Normal loss
  3. C.Abnormal gain
  4. D.Scrap value

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Normal loss is the loss that is expected and unavoidable under efficient operating conditions, and its cost is absorbed by the good units produced.

Question 16

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

Under marginal costing, the 'contribution' per unit is calculated as

  1. A.Selling price per unit minus variable cost per unit
  2. B.Selling price per unit minus total cost per unit
  3. C.Fixed cost minus variable cost
  4. D.Selling price per unit minus fixed cost per unit

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Contribution = Selling Price − Variable Cost per unit; it represents the amount available to cover fixed costs and generate profit.

Question 17

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

A favourable material price variance arises when

  1. A.The actual price paid for materials is less than the standard price
  2. B.The actual price paid exceeds the standard price
  3. C.The actual quantity used exceeds the standard quantity
  4. D.Actual output falls short of standard output

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Material Price Variance = (Standard Price − Actual Price) × Actual Quantity; it is favourable when the actual price paid is lower than the standard price.

Question 18

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

A budget designed to adjust automatically in accordance with the level of activity actually attained is known as a

  1. A.Fixed budget
  2. B.Flexible budget
  3. C.Zero-based budget
  4. D.Master budget

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A flexible budget is prepared for different levels of activity and is adjusted (flexed) to the actual level attained, enabling meaningful variance analysis.

Question 19

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Operations planning is primarily concerned with the

  1. A.Efficient utilisation of resources to produce goods or services
  2. B.Recruitment of sales staff exclusively
  3. C.Design of advertising campaigns
  4. D.Formulation of dividend policy

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Operations planning and control focuses on efficiently converting inputs (materials, labour, machinery) into outputs (goods/services).

Question 20

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model determines the order quantity that minimises the total of

  1. A.Ordering cost and carrying (holding) cost
  2. B.Selling price and profit margin
  3. C.Wages and salaries
  4. D.Excise duty and customs duty

Correct answer: A

Explanation: EOQ balances ordering cost (which falls with larger, less frequent orders) against carrying cost (which rises with larger inventory), minimising their total.

Question 21

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Total Quality Management (TQM) emphasises

  1. A.Continuous improvement in quality, involving all employees across the organisation
  2. B.Quality checks conducted solely by inspectors at the final stage
  3. C.One-time quality audits with no follow-up
  4. D.Cost-cutting at the expense of product quality

Correct answer: A

Explanation: TQM is a management philosophy that seeks continuous, organisation-wide improvement in quality, involving every employee, not just a quality control department.

Question 22

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Strategy formulation, as a stage of strategic management, primarily involves setting the organisation's

  1. A.Mission, objectives, and strategic choices
  2. B.Daily work schedules only
  3. C.Annual budget alone
  4. D.Payroll structure

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Strategy formulation involves defining the mission and objectives of the organisation and selecting appropriate strategies to achieve them.

Question 23

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Business Process Re-engineering (BPR) primarily involves

  1. A.Radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance
  2. B.Minor, incremental changes to existing processes
  3. C.Complete outsourcing of all business functions
  4. D.Deliberately reducing product quality to cut costs

Correct answer: A

Explanation: BPR, as conceived by Hammer and Champy, involves fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in cost, quality, service and speed.

Question 24

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A key element in evaluating whether a chosen strategy is working effectively is

  1. A.Comparing actual performance against pre-set standards and objectives
  2. B.Ignoring deviations between actual and planned performance
  3. C.Avoiding periodic performance reviews
  4. D.Reducing communication between departments

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Strategy evaluation involves measuring actual performance against established standards and taking corrective action where deviations occur.

Question 25

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

The concept of 'time value of money' implies that a rupee received today is worth

  1. A.More than a rupee to be received in the future
  2. B.Less than a rupee to be received in the future
  3. C.Exactly equal to a rupee received in the future
  4. D.Unrelated to a rupee received in the future

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Money has time value because a rupee today can be invested to earn a return, making it worth more than the same rupee received later.

Question 26

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is computed by weighting the cost of each source of capital by its

  1. A.Proportion in the firm's overall capital structure
  2. B.Face value alone
  3. C.Market capitalisation of equity alone
  4. D.Applicable corporate tax rate alone

Correct answer: A

Explanation: WACC is the weighted average of the costs of all sources of long-term capital (equity, preference, debt), each weighted by its proportion in the capital structure.

Question 27

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

The 'Payback Period' method of evaluating capital budgeting proposals measures

  1. A.The time required to recover the initial investment from a project's cash inflows
  2. B.The internal rate of return of the project
  3. C.The profitability index of the project
  4. D.The firm's cost of capital

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The payback period indicates how long it takes for a project's cumulative cash inflows to equal the initial investment outlay.

Question 28

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

Net working capital of a firm is calculated as

  1. A.Current Assets minus Current Liabilities
  2. B.Fixed Assets minus Current Liabilities
  3. C.Total Assets minus Total Liabilities
  4. D.Current Assets plus Current Liabilities

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Net working capital represents the surplus of current assets over current liabilities, indicating short-term liquidity.

Question 29

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

According to the Modigliani-Miller (MM) hypothesis, under the assumptions of a perfect capital market, the value of a firm is

  1. A.Independent of its dividend policy
  2. B.Solely determined by its dividend payout ratio
  3. C.Maximised only when the payout ratio is 100%
  4. D.Maximised only when the payout ratio is zero

Correct answer: A

Explanation: MM's dividend irrelevance theory holds that, in a perfect capital market with no taxes or transaction costs, a firm's value depends only on its earning power and investment decisions, not on how earnings are split between dividends and retained earnings.

Question 30

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

Business data analytics that uses historical data and statistical techniques to forecast future outcomes or trends is called

  1. A.Descriptive analytics
  2. B.Predictive analytics
  3. C.Prescriptive analytics
  4. D.None of the above

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Predictive analytics uses historical data, statistical algorithms and machine learning to identify the likelihood of future outcomes.

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