CS Executive Practice Set 1
CS Executive · 2026 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 30
- Total marks
- 30
- Duration
- 180 minutes
- Negative marking
- −0.25
Subjects: Legal Studies · Business Studies · Accountancy · Financial Literacy
Question 1
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The primary sources of law in India include legislation, judicial precedent and
- A.Custom
- B.Folklore
- C.Religious text exclusively
- D.Media reports
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Legislation, precedent (case law) and custom are traditionally recognised as the principal sources of law.
Question 2
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The term 'jurisprudence' refers to the
- A.Theoretical and philosophical study of law and legal systems
- B.Practice of criminal litigation exclusively
- C.Drafting of commercial contracts
- D.Planning of corporate tax strategy
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Jurisprudence is the study of the theory, philosophy and fundamental principles underlying law and legal systems.
Question 3
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The 'Golden Rule' of statutory interpretation is applied when a purely literal interpretation of a statute would lead to
- A.An absurd, unjust or inconsistent result, permitting the court to modify the meaning to avoid it
- B.A criminal offence in every case
- C.An automatic tax benefit for the assessee
- D.A need for a constitutional amendment
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The Golden Rule allows courts to depart from the literal meaning of words where a strict literal interpretation would produce an absurd or unjust outcome.
Question 4
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to citizens under which Part of the Constitution of India?
- A.Part III
- B.Part IV
- C.Part V
- D.Part XX
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Part III of the Constitution of India (Articles 12 to 35) guarantees Fundamental Rights to citizens.
Question 5
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The writ issued by a court directing a public authority to perform a public duty it has failed or refused to perform is called
- A.Habeas Corpus
- B.Mandamus
- C.Certiorari
- D.Quo Warranto
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Mandamus is a command issued by a superior court directing a public authority or official to perform a duty it is legally obligated to perform.
Question 6
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Under the Consumer Protection Act, the definition of 'consumer' specifically excludes a person who buys goods or avails services for
- A.Personal or household use
- B.Resale or a commercial purpose
- C.Self-employment purposes, using his own labour, to earn his livelihood
- D.Use by family members
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A person who buys goods for resale or for a commercial purpose is excluded from the definition of 'consumer', but this exclusion does not apply to a person who buys goods exclusively for self-employment to earn a livelihood, by means of self-employment.
Question 7
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A company comes into legal existence with effect from the date mentioned in its
- A.Certificate of Incorporation
- B.Memorandum of Association alone
- C.Prospectus
- D.First Board resolution
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A company is deemed to come into existence from the date stated in the Certificate of Incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.
Question 8
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A debenture holder of a company is, in relation to the company, a
- A.Creditor
- B.Owner/shareholder
- C.Employee
- D.Statutory auditor
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Debentures represent borrowed funds; a debenture holder is a creditor of the company, entitled to interest, not an owner.
Question 9
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Under Section 149 of the Companies Act, 2013, an independent director is eligible to hold office for a maximum of
- A.Two consecutive terms of up to five years each (subject to re-appointment by special resolution)
- B.One continuous term of ten years, without any break
- C.Life tenure, once appointed
- D.One year, non-renewable
Correct answer: A
Explanation: An independent director may serve up to two consecutive terms of five years each; after that, they can be re-appointed only after a cooling-off period of three years.
Question 10
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A scheme of compromise or arrangement between a company and its creditors/members under the Companies Act, 2013 requires the sanction of the
- A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
- B.Registrar of Companies alone
- C.Reserve Bank of India
- D.Central Government alone
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Sections 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013 require schemes of compromise or arrangement to be sanctioned by the NCLT.
Question 11
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must ordinarily be completed within
- A.180 days, extendable up to a maximum of 330 days
- B.30 days, with no extension
- C.1,000 days
- D.There is no prescribed time limit
Correct answer: A
Explanation: CIRP must ordinarily be completed within 180 days, extendable by up to 90 days, subject to an overall outer limit of 330 days including litigation time.
Question 12
Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Arbitration, as governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, is a method of
- A.Alternative dispute resolution outside the regular court system
- B.Initiating a criminal prosecution
- C.Amending the Constitution
- D.Passing a company board resolution
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Arbitration is a form of alternative dispute resolution in which parties refer their dispute to one or more arbitrators for a binding decision, outside regular courts.
Question 13
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A business entity in which the owner has unlimited personal liability and the business has no separate legal identity from the owner is a
- A.Sole Proprietorship
- B.Private Limited Company
- C.Limited Liability Partnership
- D.Public Limited Company
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A sole proprietorship has no separate legal existence from its owner, who bears unlimited personal liability for the business's debts.
Question 14
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25SPICe+ (Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus) is an integrated web form used for the
- A.Incorporation of a company in India
- B.Filing of income tax returns
- C.GST registration exclusively
- D.Renewal of trademarks
Correct answer: A
Explanation: SPICe+ is the MCA's integrated form for company incorporation, along with related registrations such as PAN, TAN, EPFO and ESIC.
Question 15
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25Udyam Registration is a government registration meant for
- A.Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
- B.Large multinational corporations only
- C.Foreign companies operating in India
- D.Government departments
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Udyam Registration is an online registration for enterprises to be recognised and classified as MSMEs, enabling access to related benefits.
Question 16
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25The 'Startup India' initiative of the Government of India was launched in
- A.2016
- B.2005
- C.1991
- D.2020
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Startup India was launched by the Government of India on 16 January 2016 to promote entrepreneurship and support startups.
Question 17
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A private company may be converted into a public company primarily by
- A.Altering its Articles of Association by passing a special resolution and complying with related requirements
- B.Merely filing its annual return
- C.Simply changing its registered name
- D.Without any regulatory approval or filing
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Conversion of a private company into a public company requires alteration of the Articles of Association through a special resolution, along with compliance with the Companies Act and rules.
Question 18
Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25A company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 is formed to promote objects such as commerce, art, science, sports, education or charity, and
- A.Is prohibited from distributing dividends to its members
- B.Must maximise dividend payouts to shareholders
- C.Exists primarily to trade in securities
- D.Is formed mainly for real estate speculation
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A Section 8 company applies its profits (if any) in promoting its objects and is prohibited from paying any dividend to its members.
Question 19
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25The rates of income tax applicable for a particular assessment year are prescribed each year by the
- A.Finance Act
- B.Income-tax Rules alone
- C.State Government
- D.Reserve Bank of India
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The rates of income tax are prescribed annually by the Finance Act passed by Parliament, read with the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Question 20
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25'Total Income' of an assessee is arrived at after deducting from the 'Gross Total Income' the
- A.Deductions available under Chapter VI-A
- B.TDS already deducted
- C.Advance tax already paid
- D.Surcharge payable
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Total Income = Gross Total Income minus deductions permissible under Chapter VI-A (such as Sections 80C, 80D, etc.).
Question 21
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25Under the GST law, the general threshold limit of aggregate turnover for compulsory registration of a supplier of goods (in most States) is
- A.Exceeding ₹40 lakh
- B.Exceeding ₹1 lakh
- C.Exceeding ₹10 lakh only, for all States
- D.There is no threshold; every supplier must register
Correct answer: A
Explanation: For suppliers of goods, the general GST registration threshold is an aggregate turnover exceeding ₹40 lakh, with a lower threshold applicable in certain special category States.
Question 22
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25The final accounts of a trading business typically comprise the Trading Account, the Profit and Loss Account, and the
- A.Balance Sheet
- B.Cash Book
- C.Journal
- D.Ledger
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Final accounts of a business consist of the Trading and Profit & Loss Account (to determine profit/loss) and the Balance Sheet (to show financial position).
Question 23
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25A Fund Flow Statement is primarily used to analyse the changes in a firm's
- A.Working capital position between two Balance Sheet dates
- B.Cash balance alone
- C.Net profit for the year alone
- D.Share capital alone
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A Fund Flow Statement shows the sources and applications of funds, analysing changes in working capital between two balance sheet dates.
Question 24
Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25The Current Ratio of a firm is calculated as
- A.Current Assets divided by Current Liabilities
- B.Fixed Assets divided by Current Liabilities
- C.Current Assets divided by Fixed Liabilities
- D.Net Profit divided by Current Assets
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The Current Ratio, a key liquidity ratio, is computed as Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities, indicating a firm's ability to meet short-term obligations.
Question 25
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 primarily regulates
- A.Trading in securities and the functioning of recognised stock exchanges
- B.Incorporation of companies
- C.Assessment of income tax
- D.Labour welfare schemes
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The SCRA, 1956 provides for the regulation of securities contracts and the recognition and regulation of stock exchanges in India.
Question 26
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established as a statutory regulatory body under the SEBI Act in
- A.1992
- B.1956
- C.2013
- D.2000
Correct answer: A
Explanation: SEBI was constituted as a statutory body under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, to protect investors and regulate the securities market.
Question 27
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25Dematerialisation, under the Depositories Act, 1996, refers to the process of converting
- A.Physical share certificates into electronic (book-entry) form
- B.Electronic securities into physical certificates
- C.Debt instruments into equity shares
- D.Preference shares into equity shares
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Dematerialisation is the process of converting physical securities into an equivalent number of securities held in electronic form in a depository.
Question 28
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25The market in which new securities are issued by companies for the first time is known as the
- A.Primary market
- B.Secondary market
- C.Money market
- D.Foreign exchange market
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The primary market deals with the issue of new securities directly by companies to investors, while the secondary market deals with trading of already-issued securities.
Question 29
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25A mutual fund pools money from a number of investors and invests it in a
- A.Diversified portfolio of securities, managed by professional fund managers
- B.Single stock chosen by one investor
- C.Real estate assets exclusively
- D.Physical gold exclusively
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A mutual fund aggregates funds from many investors and invests them in a diversified portfolio of securities, managed professionally on their behalf.
Question 30
Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25A downgrade in the credit rating of a debt instrument generally indicates
- A.An increased perceived risk of default by the issuer
- B.Improved creditworthiness of the issuer
- C.No change in the risk profile of the instrument
- D.A guarantee of full and timely repayment
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A credit rating downgrade signals that rating agencies perceive a higher risk of default or delay in servicing the debt obligation.