CS Executive Practice Set 1

CS Executive · 2026 · with answers and explanations

questions
30
Total marks
30
Duration
180 minutes
Negative marking
−0.25

Subjects: Legal Studies · Business Studies · Accountancy · Financial Literacy

Question 1

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The primary sources of law in India include legislation, judicial precedent and

  1. A.Custom
  2. B.Folklore
  3. C.Religious text exclusively
  4. D.Media reports

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Legislation, precedent (case law) and custom are traditionally recognised as the principal sources of law.

Question 2

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The term 'jurisprudence' refers to the

  1. A.Theoretical and philosophical study of law and legal systems
  2. B.Practice of criminal litigation exclusively
  3. C.Drafting of commercial contracts
  4. D.Planning of corporate tax strategy

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Jurisprudence is the study of the theory, philosophy and fundamental principles underlying law and legal systems.

Question 3

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The 'Golden Rule' of statutory interpretation is applied when a purely literal interpretation of a statute would lead to

  1. A.An absurd, unjust or inconsistent result, permitting the court to modify the meaning to avoid it
  2. B.A criminal offence in every case
  3. C.An automatic tax benefit for the assessee
  4. D.A need for a constitutional amendment

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The Golden Rule allows courts to depart from the literal meaning of words where a strict literal interpretation would produce an absurd or unjust outcome.

Question 4

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to citizens under which Part of the Constitution of India?

  1. A.Part III
  2. B.Part IV
  3. C.Part V
  4. D.Part XX

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Part III of the Constitution of India (Articles 12 to 35) guarantees Fundamental Rights to citizens.

Question 5

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The writ issued by a court directing a public authority to perform a public duty it has failed or refused to perform is called

  1. A.Habeas Corpus
  2. B.Mandamus
  3. C.Certiorari
  4. D.Quo Warranto

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Mandamus is a command issued by a superior court directing a public authority or official to perform a duty it is legally obligated to perform.

Question 6

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Consumer Protection Act, the definition of 'consumer' specifically excludes a person who buys goods or avails services for

  1. A.Personal or household use
  2. B.Resale or a commercial purpose
  3. C.Self-employment purposes, using his own labour, to earn his livelihood
  4. D.Use by family members

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A person who buys goods for resale or for a commercial purpose is excluded from the definition of 'consumer', but this exclusion does not apply to a person who buys goods exclusively for self-employment to earn a livelihood, by means of self-employment.

Question 7

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A company comes into legal existence with effect from the date mentioned in its

  1. A.Certificate of Incorporation
  2. B.Memorandum of Association alone
  3. C.Prospectus
  4. D.First Board resolution

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A company is deemed to come into existence from the date stated in the Certificate of Incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.

Question 8

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A debenture holder of a company is, in relation to the company, a

  1. A.Creditor
  2. B.Owner/shareholder
  3. C.Employee
  4. D.Statutory auditor

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Debentures represent borrowed funds; a debenture holder is a creditor of the company, entitled to interest, not an owner.

Question 9

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under Section 149 of the Companies Act, 2013, an independent director is eligible to hold office for a maximum of

  1. A.Two consecutive terms of up to five years each (subject to re-appointment by special resolution)
  2. B.One continuous term of ten years, without any break
  3. C.Life tenure, once appointed
  4. D.One year, non-renewable

Correct answer: A

Explanation: An independent director may serve up to two consecutive terms of five years each; after that, they can be re-appointed only after a cooling-off period of three years.

Question 10

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A scheme of compromise or arrangement between a company and its creditors/members under the Companies Act, 2013 requires the sanction of the

  1. A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
  2. B.Registrar of Companies alone
  3. C.Reserve Bank of India
  4. D.Central Government alone

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Sections 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013 require schemes of compromise or arrangement to be sanctioned by the NCLT.

Question 11

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must ordinarily be completed within

  1. A.180 days, extendable up to a maximum of 330 days
  2. B.30 days, with no extension
  3. C.1,000 days
  4. D.There is no prescribed time limit

Correct answer: A

Explanation: CIRP must ordinarily be completed within 180 days, extendable by up to 90 days, subject to an overall outer limit of 330 days including litigation time.

Question 12

Legal Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Arbitration, as governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, is a method of

  1. A.Alternative dispute resolution outside the regular court system
  2. B.Initiating a criminal prosecution
  3. C.Amending the Constitution
  4. D.Passing a company board resolution

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Arbitration is a form of alternative dispute resolution in which parties refer their dispute to one or more arbitrators for a binding decision, outside regular courts.

Question 13

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A business entity in which the owner has unlimited personal liability and the business has no separate legal identity from the owner is a

  1. A.Sole Proprietorship
  2. B.Private Limited Company
  3. C.Limited Liability Partnership
  4. D.Public Limited Company

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A sole proprietorship has no separate legal existence from its owner, who bears unlimited personal liability for the business's debts.

Question 14

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

SPICe+ (Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus) is an integrated web form used for the

  1. A.Incorporation of a company in India
  2. B.Filing of income tax returns
  3. C.GST registration exclusively
  4. D.Renewal of trademarks

Correct answer: A

Explanation: SPICe+ is the MCA's integrated form for company incorporation, along with related registrations such as PAN, TAN, EPFO and ESIC.

Question 15

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

Udyam Registration is a government registration meant for

  1. A.Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
  2. B.Large multinational corporations only
  3. C.Foreign companies operating in India
  4. D.Government departments

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Udyam Registration is an online registration for enterprises to be recognised and classified as MSMEs, enabling access to related benefits.

Question 16

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

The 'Startup India' initiative of the Government of India was launched in

  1. A.2016
  2. B.2005
  3. C.1991
  4. D.2020

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Startup India was launched by the Government of India on 16 January 2016 to promote entrepreneurship and support startups.

Question 17

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A private company may be converted into a public company primarily by

  1. A.Altering its Articles of Association by passing a special resolution and complying with related requirements
  2. B.Merely filing its annual return
  3. C.Simply changing its registered name
  4. D.Without any regulatory approval or filing

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Conversion of a private company into a public company requires alteration of the Articles of Association through a special resolution, along with compliance with the Companies Act and rules.

Question 18

Business Studies · 1 marks · −0.25

A company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 is formed to promote objects such as commerce, art, science, sports, education or charity, and

  1. A.Is prohibited from distributing dividends to its members
  2. B.Must maximise dividend payouts to shareholders
  3. C.Exists primarily to trade in securities
  4. D.Is formed mainly for real estate speculation

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A Section 8 company applies its profits (if any) in promoting its objects and is prohibited from paying any dividend to its members.

Question 19

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

The rates of income tax applicable for a particular assessment year are prescribed each year by the

  1. A.Finance Act
  2. B.Income-tax Rules alone
  3. C.State Government
  4. D.Reserve Bank of India

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The rates of income tax are prescribed annually by the Finance Act passed by Parliament, read with the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Question 20

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

'Total Income' of an assessee is arrived at after deducting from the 'Gross Total Income' the

  1. A.Deductions available under Chapter VI-A
  2. B.TDS already deducted
  3. C.Advance tax already paid
  4. D.Surcharge payable

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Total Income = Gross Total Income minus deductions permissible under Chapter VI-A (such as Sections 80C, 80D, etc.).

Question 21

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

Under the GST law, the general threshold limit of aggregate turnover for compulsory registration of a supplier of goods (in most States) is

  1. A.Exceeding ₹40 lakh
  2. B.Exceeding ₹1 lakh
  3. C.Exceeding ₹10 lakh only, for all States
  4. D.There is no threshold; every supplier must register

Correct answer: A

Explanation: For suppliers of goods, the general GST registration threshold is an aggregate turnover exceeding ₹40 lakh, with a lower threshold applicable in certain special category States.

Question 22

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

The final accounts of a trading business typically comprise the Trading Account, the Profit and Loss Account, and the

  1. A.Balance Sheet
  2. B.Cash Book
  3. C.Journal
  4. D.Ledger

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Final accounts of a business consist of the Trading and Profit & Loss Account (to determine profit/loss) and the Balance Sheet (to show financial position).

Question 23

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

A Fund Flow Statement is primarily used to analyse the changes in a firm's

  1. A.Working capital position between two Balance Sheet dates
  2. B.Cash balance alone
  3. C.Net profit for the year alone
  4. D.Share capital alone

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A Fund Flow Statement shows the sources and applications of funds, analysing changes in working capital between two balance sheet dates.

Question 24

Accountancy · 1 marks · −0.25

The Current Ratio of a firm is calculated as

  1. A.Current Assets divided by Current Liabilities
  2. B.Fixed Assets divided by Current Liabilities
  3. C.Current Assets divided by Fixed Liabilities
  4. D.Net Profit divided by Current Assets

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The Current Ratio, a key liquidity ratio, is computed as Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities, indicating a firm's ability to meet short-term obligations.

Question 25

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 primarily regulates

  1. A.Trading in securities and the functioning of recognised stock exchanges
  2. B.Incorporation of companies
  3. C.Assessment of income tax
  4. D.Labour welfare schemes

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The SCRA, 1956 provides for the regulation of securities contracts and the recognition and regulation of stock exchanges in India.

Question 26

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established as a statutory regulatory body under the SEBI Act in

  1. A.1992
  2. B.1956
  3. C.2013
  4. D.2000

Correct answer: A

Explanation: SEBI was constituted as a statutory body under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, to protect investors and regulate the securities market.

Question 27

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

Dematerialisation, under the Depositories Act, 1996, refers to the process of converting

  1. A.Physical share certificates into electronic (book-entry) form
  2. B.Electronic securities into physical certificates
  3. C.Debt instruments into equity shares
  4. D.Preference shares into equity shares

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Dematerialisation is the process of converting physical securities into an equivalent number of securities held in electronic form in a depository.

Question 28

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

The market in which new securities are issued by companies for the first time is known as the

  1. A.Primary market
  2. B.Secondary market
  3. C.Money market
  4. D.Foreign exchange market

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The primary market deals with the issue of new securities directly by companies to investors, while the secondary market deals with trading of already-issued securities.

Question 29

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

A mutual fund pools money from a number of investors and invests it in a

  1. A.Diversified portfolio of securities, managed by professional fund managers
  2. B.Single stock chosen by one investor
  3. C.Real estate assets exclusively
  4. D.Physical gold exclusively

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A mutual fund aggregates funds from many investors and invests them in a diversified portfolio of securities, managed professionally on their behalf.

Question 30

Financial Literacy · 1 marks · −0.25

A downgrade in the credit rating of a debt instrument generally indicates

  1. A.An increased perceived risk of default by the issuer
  2. B.Improved creditworthiness of the issuer
  3. C.No change in the risk profile of the instrument
  4. D.A guarantee of full and timely repayment

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A credit rating downgrade signals that rating agencies perceive a higher risk of default or delay in servicing the debt obligation.

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