JEE Main 2017 — 2 Apr Offline Set D (Previous Year Paper)

JEE Main · 2017 · with answers and explanations

questions
89
Total marks
356
Duration
180 minutes
Negative marking
−1

Subjects: Mathematics · Physics · Chemistry

Question 1

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If S is the set of distinct values of 'b' for which the following system of linear equations x+y+z=1x + y + z = 1, x+ay+z=1x + ay + z = 1, ax+by+z=0ax + by + z = 0 has no solution, then S is:

  1. A.an empty set
  2. B.an infinite set
  3. C.a finite set containing two or more elements
  4. D.a singleton

Correct answer: D

Explanation: D=0D=0 forces a=1a=1; then the equations are x+y+z=1x+y+z=1 (twice) and x+by+z=0x+by+z=0, inconsistent only when b=1b=1. So S ={1}=\{1\}.

Question 2

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The following statement (p→q)→[(∼p→q)→q](p \to q) \to [(\sim p \to q) \to q] is:

  1. A.a tautology
  2. B.equivalent to ∼p→q\sim p \to q
  3. C.equivalent to p→∼qp \to \sim q
  4. D.a fallacy

Correct answer: A

Explanation: (∼p→q)→q≡(p∨q)→q≡(∼p∧∼q)∨q≡∼p∨q≡p→q(\sim p\to q)\to q \equiv (p\vee q)\to q\equiv(\sim p\wedge\sim q)\vee q\equiv\sim p\vee q\equiv p\to q, so the statement is (p→q)→(p→q)(p\to q)\to(p\to q), a tautology.

Question 3

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If 5(tan⁡2x−cos⁡2x)=2cos⁡2x+95(\tan^2 x - \cos^2 x) = 2\cos 2x + 9, then the value of cos⁡4x\cos 4x is:

  1. A.−35-\frac{3}{5}
  2. B.13\frac{1}{3}
  3. C.29\frac{2}{9}
  4. D.−79-\frac{7}{9}

Correct answer: D

Explanation: With t=cos⁡2xt=\cos^2x: 5(1t−1−t)=2(2t−1)+9⇒9t2+12t−5=05(\frac1t-1-t)=2(2t-1)+9 \Rightarrow 9t^2+12t-5=0, t=13t=\frac13. cos⁡2x=−13\cos2x=-\frac13, cos⁡4x=2⋅19−1=−79\cos4x=2\cdot\frac19-1=-\frac79.

Question 4

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

For three events A, B and C, P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) = P(Exactly one of B or C occurs) = P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) = 14\frac{1}{4} and P(All the three events occur simultaneously) = 116\frac{1}{16}. Then the probability that at least one of the events occurs, is:

  1. A.732\frac{7}{32}
  2. B.716\frac{7}{16}
  3. C.764\frac{7}{64}
  4. D.316\frac{3}{16}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Adding P(A)+P(B)−2P(AB)=14P(A)+P(B)-2P(AB)=\frac14 etc.: ∑P(A)−∑P(AB)=38\sum P(A)-\sum P(AB)=\frac38. P(A∪B∪C)=38+116=716P(A\cup B\cup C)=\frac38+\frac1{16}=\frac7{16}.

Question 5

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let ω\omega be a complex number such that 2ω+1=z2\omega + 1 = z where z=−3z = \sqrt{-3}. If ∣1111−ω2−1ω21ω2ω7∣=3k\begin{vmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -\omega^2-1 & \omega^2 \\ 1 & \omega^2 & \omega^7 \end{vmatrix} = 3k, then k is equal to:

  1. A.−z-z
  2. B.zz
  3. C.−1-1
  4. D.1

Correct answer: A

Explanation: ω\omega is a cube root of unity, −ω2−1=ω-\omega^2-1=\omega, ω7=ω\omega^7=\omega. The determinant is 3(ω2−ω)=−3z3(\omega^2-\omega)=-3z, so k=−zk=-z.

Question 6

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let k be an integer such that the triangle with vertices (k,−3k)(k, -3k), (5,k)(5, k) and (−k,2)(-k, 2) has area 28 sq. units. Then the orthocentre of this triangle is at the point:

  1. A.(2,−12)\left(2, -\frac{1}{2}\right)
  2. B.(1,34)\left(1, \frac{3}{4}\right)
  3. C.(1,−34)\left(1, -\frac{3}{4}\right)
  4. D.(2,12)\left(2, \frac{1}{2}\right)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Area condition gives 5k2+13k−46=05k^2+13k-46=0, integer root k=2k=2. Vertices (2,−6),(5,2),(−2,2)(2,-6),(5,2),(-2,2): altitude x=2x=2 and altitude through (5,2)(5,2) with slope 12\frac12 meet at (2,12)(2,\frac12).

Question 7

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a circular sector. Then the maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is:

  1. A.12.5
  2. B.10
  3. C.25
  4. D.30

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 2r+rθ=202r+r\theta=20, area =12r2θ=10r−r2=\frac12r^2\theta=10r-r^2, maximum 25 at r=5r=5.

Question 8

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The area (in sq. units) of the region {(x,y):x≥0, x+y≤3, x2≤4y and y≤1+x}\{(x, y) : x \ge 0,\ x + y \le 3,\ x^2 \le 4y \text{ and } y \le 1 + \sqrt{x}\} is:

  1. A.5912\frac{59}{12}
  2. B.32\frac{3}{2}
  3. C.73\frac{7}{3}
  4. D.52\frac{5}{2}

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Area =∫01(1+x)dx+12⋅3⋅1=\int_0^1(1+\sqrt x)dx+\frac12\cdot3\cdot1 (trapezium under x+y=3x+y=3 from 1 to 2) −∫02x24dx=53+32−23=52-\int_0^2\frac{x^2}{4}dx=\frac53+\frac32-\frac23=\frac52.

Question 9

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If the image of the point P(1,−2,3)P(1, -2, 3) in the plane, 2x+3y−4z+22=02x + 3y - 4z + 22 = 0 measured parallel to the line, x1=y4=z5\frac{x}{1} = \frac{y}{4} = \frac{z}{5} is Q, then PQ is equal to:

  1. A.353\sqrt{5}
  2. B.2422\sqrt{42}
  3. C.42\sqrt{42}
  4. D.656\sqrt{5}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Line through P: (1+λ,−2+4λ,3+5λ)(1+\lambda,-2+4\lambda,3+5\lambda) meets the plane at λ=1\lambda=1, M =(2,2,8)=(2,2,8). PM=42PM=\sqrt{42}, PQ=242PQ=2\sqrt{42}.

Question 10

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If for x∈(0,14)x \in \left(0, \frac{1}{4}\right), the derivative of tan⁡−1(6xx1−9x3)\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{6x\sqrt{x}}{1-9x^3}\right) is x⋅g(x)\sqrt{x}\cdot g(x), then g(x)g(x) equals:

  1. A.91+9x3\frac{9}{1+9x^3}
  2. B.3xx1−9x3\frac{3x\sqrt{x}}{1-9x^3}
  3. C.3x1−9x3\frac{3x}{1-9x^3}
  4. D.31+9x3\frac{3}{1+9x^3}

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The function is 2tan⁡−1(3x3/2)2\tan^{-1}(3x^{3/2}); derivative 9x1+9x3\frac{9\sqrt x}{1+9x^3}.

Question 11

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If (2+sin⁡x)dydx+(y+1)cos⁡x=0(2 + \sin x)\frac{dy}{dx} + (y + 1)\cos x = 0 and y(0)=1y(0) = 1, then y(π2)y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) is equal to:

  1. A.13\frac{1}{3}
  2. B.−23-\frac{2}{3}
  3. C.−13-\frac{1}{3}
  4. D.43\frac{4}{3}

Correct answer: A

Explanation: ddx[(y+1)(2+sin⁡x)]=0\frac{d}{dx}[(y+1)(2+\sin x)]=0, so (y+1)(2+sin⁡x)=4(y+1)(2+\sin x)=4; at π/2\pi/2: y=13y=\frac13.

Question 12

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the level ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and P be a point on the ground such that AP=2ABAP = 2AB. If ∠BPC=β\angle BPC = \beta, then tan⁡β\tan\beta is equal to:

  1. A.67\frac{6}{7}
  2. B.14\frac{1}{4}
  3. C.29\frac{2}{9}
  4. D.49\frac{4}{9}

Correct answer: C

Explanation: With AB =2x=2x, AP =4x=4x: tan⁡∠APC=14\tan\angle APC=\frac14, tan⁡∠APB=12\tan\angle APB=\frac12. tan⁡β=1/2−1/41+1/8=29\tan\beta=\frac{1/2-1/4}{1+1/8}=\frac29.

Question 13

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If A=[2−3−41]A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -3 \\ -4 & 1 \end{bmatrix}, then adj(3A2+12A)\text{adj}(3A^2 + 12A) is equal to:

  1. A.[72−84−6351]\begin{bmatrix} 72 & -84 \\ -63 & 51 \end{bmatrix}
  2. B.[51638472]\begin{bmatrix} 51 & 63 \\ 84 & 72 \end{bmatrix}
  3. C.[51846372]\begin{bmatrix} 51 & 84 \\ 63 & 72 \end{bmatrix}
  4. D.[72−63−8451]\begin{bmatrix} 72 & -63 \\ -84 & 51 \end{bmatrix}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A2=[16−9−1213]A^2=\begin{bmatrix}16&-9\\-12&13\end{bmatrix}, 3A2+12A=[72−63−8451]3A^2+12A=\begin{bmatrix}72&-63\\-84&51\end{bmatrix}, adjoint [51638472]\begin{bmatrix}51&63\\84&72\end{bmatrix}.

Question 14

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

For any three positive real numbers a, b and c, 9(25a2+b2)+25(c2−3ac)=15b(3a+c)9(25a^2 + b^2) + 25(c^2 - 3ac) = 15b(3a + c). Then:

  1. A.b, c and a are in G.P.
  2. B.b, c and a are in A.P.
  3. C.a, b and c are in A.P.
  4. D.a, b and c are in G.P.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The relation is (15a−3b)2+(15a−5c)2+(3b−5c)2=0(15a-3b)^2+(15a-5c)^2+(3b-5c)^2=0, so 15a=3b=5c15a=3b=5c: a=3λ,b=15λ,c=9λa=3\lambda,b=15\lambda,c=9\lambda, giving 2c=a+b2c=a+b.

Question 15

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The distance of the point (1,3,−7)(1, 3, -7) from the plane passing through the point (1,−1,−1)(1, -1, -1), having normal perpendicular to both the lines x−11=y+2−2=z−43\frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y+2}{-2} = \frac{z-4}{3} and x−22=y+1−1=z+7−1\frac{x-2}{2} = \frac{y+1}{-1} = \frac{z+7}{-1}, is:

  1. A.2074\frac{20}{\sqrt{74}}
  2. B.1083\frac{10}{\sqrt{83}}
  3. C.583\frac{5}{\sqrt{83}}
  4. D.1074\frac{10}{\sqrt{74}}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Normal =(1,−2,3)×(2,−1,−1)=(5,7,3)=(1,-2,3)\times(2,-1,-1)=(5,7,3); plane 5x+7y+3z+5=05x+7y+3z+5=0; distance =∣5+21−21+5∣83=1083=\frac{|5+21-21+5|}{\sqrt{83}}=\frac{10}{\sqrt{83}}.

Question 16

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let In=∫tan⁡nx dxI_n = \int \tan^n x\,dx, (n>1)(n > 1). If I4+I6=atan⁡5x+bx5+CI_4 + I_6 = a\tan^5 x + bx^5 + C, where C is a constant of integration, then the ordered pair (a,b)(a, b) is equal to:

  1. A.(−15,1)\left(-\frac{1}{5}, 1\right)
  2. B.(15,0)\left(\frac{1}{5}, 0\right)
  3. C.(15,−1)\left(\frac{1}{5}, -1\right)
  4. D.(−15,0)\left(-\frac{1}{5}, 0\right)

Correct answer: B

Explanation: In+In−2=tan⁡n−1xn−1I_n+I_{n-2}=\frac{\tan^{n-1}x}{n-1}, so I6+I4=tan⁡5x5+CI_6+I_4=\frac{\tan^5x}{5}+C: a=15a=\frac15, b=0b=0.

Question 17

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is at the origin is 12\frac{1}{2}. If one of its directrices is x=−4x = -4, then the equation of the normal to it at (1,32)\left(1, \frac{3}{2}\right) is:

  1. A.2y−x=22y - x = 2
  2. B.4x−2y=14x - 2y = 1
  3. C.4x+2y=74x + 2y = 7
  4. D.x+2y=4x + 2y = 4

Correct answer: B

Explanation: a/e=4a/e=4 gives a=2a=2, b2=3b^2=3: x24+y23=1\frac{x^2}{4}+\frac{y^2}{3}=1. Normal at (1,32)(1,\frac32): 4x1−3y3/2=4−3\frac{4x}{1}-\frac{3y}{3/2}=4-3, i.e. 4x−2y=14x-2y=1.

Question 18

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

A hyperbola passes through the point P(2,3)P(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}) and has foci at (±2,0)(\pm2, 0). Then the tangent to this hyperbola at P also passes through the point:

  1. A.(32,23)(3\sqrt{2}, 2\sqrt{3})
  2. B.(22,33)(2\sqrt{2}, 3\sqrt{3})
  3. C.(3,2)(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{2})
  4. D.(−2,−3)(-\sqrt{2}, -\sqrt{3})

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 2a2−34−a2=1\frac{2}{a^2}-\frac{3}{4-a^2}=1 gives a2=1a^2=1 (as a2<4a^2<4): x2−y23=1x^2-\frac{y^2}{3}=1. Tangent at P: 2x−y3=1\sqrt2x-\frac{y}{\sqrt3}=1, passing through (22,33)(2\sqrt2,3\sqrt3).

Question 19

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The function f:R→[−12,12]f : \mathbb{R} \to \left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right] defined as f(x)=x1+x2f(x) = \frac{x}{1+x^2}, is:

  1. A.invertible.
  2. B.injective but not surjective.
  3. C.surjective but not injective.
  4. D.neither injective nor surjective.

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Range of ff is exactly [−12,12][-\frac12,\frac12] (extremes at x=±1x=\pm1), so onto; f(x)=f(1/x)f(x)=f(1/x), so not one-one.

Question 20

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

lim⁡x→π/2cot⁡x−cos⁡x(π−2x)3\lim_{x\to\pi/2} \frac{\cot x - \cos x}{(\pi - 2x)^3} equals:

  1. A.124\frac{1}{24}
  2. B.116\frac{1}{16}
  3. C.18\frac{1}{8}
  4. D.14\frac{1}{4}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Put x=π2+tx=\frac\pi2+t: expression =tan⁡t−sin⁡t8t3→18⋅12=116=\frac{\tan t-\sin t}{8t^3}\to\frac18\cdot\frac12=\frac1{16}.

Question 21

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a⃗=2i^+j^−2k^\vec{a} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} - 2\hat{k} and b⃗=i^+j^\vec{b} = \hat{i} + \hat{j}. Let c⃗\vec{c} be a vector such that ∣c⃗−a⃗∣=3|\vec{c} - \vec{a}| = 3, ∣(a⃗×b⃗)×c⃗∣=3|(\vec{a}\times\vec{b})\times\vec{c}| = 3 and the angle between c⃗\vec{c} and a⃗×b⃗\vec{a}\times\vec{b} be 30∘30^\circ. Then a⃗⋅c⃗\vec{a}\cdot\vec{c} is equal to:

  1. A.258\frac{25}{8}
  2. B.2
  3. C.5
  4. D.18\frac{1}{8}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: ∣a⃗×b⃗∣=3|\vec a\times\vec b|=3, so 3∣c⃗∣sin⁡30∘=3⇒∣c⃗∣=23|\vec c|\sin30^\circ=3\Rightarrow|\vec c|=2. From ∣c⃗−a⃗∣2=9|\vec c-\vec a|^2=9: 4+9−2a⃗⋅c⃗=94+9-2\vec a\cdot\vec c=9, a⃗⋅c⃗=2\vec a\cdot\vec c=2.

Question 22

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The normal to the curve y(x−2)(x−3)=x+6y(x - 2)(x - 3) = x + 6 at the point where the curve intersects the y-axis passes through the point:

  1. A.(−12,−12)\left(-\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}\right)
  2. B.(12,12)\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right)
  3. C.(12,−13)\left(\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{3}\right)
  4. D.(12,13)\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}\right)

Correct answer: B

Explanation: At x=0x=0, y=1y=1; differentiating, 6y′−5=16y'-5=1 so y′=1y'=1. Normal: x+y=1x+y=1, which contains (12,12)(\frac12,\frac12).

Question 23

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If two different numbers are taken from the set {0,1,2,3,…,10}\{0, 1, 2, 3, \dots, 10\}; then the probability that their sum as well as absolute difference are both multiple of 4, is:

  1. A.655\frac{6}{55}
  2. B.1255\frac{12}{55}
  3. C.1445\frac{14}{45}
  4. D.755\frac{7}{55}

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Both numbers must be ≡0\equiv0 or both ≡2(mod4)\equiv2\pmod4: pairs from {0,4,8}\{0,4,8\} or {2,6,10}\{2,6,10\}: 3+3(112)=655\frac{3+3}{\binom{11}{2}}=\frac6{55}.

Question 24

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, 3 of them are ladies and 4 are men. Assume X and Y have no common friends. Then the total number of ways in which X and Y together can throw a party inviting 3 ladies and 3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X and Y are in this party, is:

  1. A.485
  2. B.468
  3. C.469
  4. D.484

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Cases (X's ladies, X's men): (3,0),(2,1),(1,2),(0,3): (43)(43)+(42)(31)(31)(42)+(41)(32)(32)(41)+(33)(33)=16+324+144+1=485\binom43\binom43+\binom42\binom31\binom31\binom42+\binom41\binom32\binom32\binom41+\binom33\binom33=16+324+144+1=485.

Question 25

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The value of (21C1−10C1)+(21C2−10C2)+(21C3−10C3)+⋯+(21C10−10C10)\left({}^{21}C_1 - {}^{10}C_1\right) + \left({}^{21}C_2 - {}^{10}C_2\right) + \left({}^{21}C_3 - {}^{10}C_3\right) + \dots + \left({}^{21}C_{10} - {}^{10}C_{10}\right) is:

  1. A.221−2112^{21} - 2^{11}
  2. B.221−2102^{21} - 2^{10}
  3. C.220−292^{20} - 2^9
  4. D.220−2102^{20} - 2^{10}

Correct answer: D

Explanation: ∑r=01021Cr=220\sum_{r=0}^{10}{}^{21}C_r=2^{20} and ∑r=01010Cr=210\sum_{r=0}^{10}{}^{10}C_r=2^{10}; the r=0r=0 terms cancel, giving 220−2102^{20}-2^{10}.

Question 26

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow balls. If 10 balls are randomly drawn, one-by-one, with replacement, then the variance of the number of green balls drawn is:

  1. A.125\frac{12}{5}
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.625\frac{6}{25}

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Binomial with n=10n=10, p=35p=\frac35: variance npq=125npq=\frac{12}{5}.

Question 27

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a,b,c∈Ra, b, c \in \mathbb{R}. If f(x)=ax2+bx+cf(x) = ax^2 + bx + c is such that a+b+c=3a + b + c = 3 and f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+xyf(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy, ∀x,y∈R\forall x, y \in \mathbb{R}, then ∑n=110f(n)\sum_{n=1}^{10} f(n) is equal to:

  1. A.330
  2. B.165
  3. C.190
  4. D.255

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Comparing gives 2a=12a=1, c=0c=0, so f(x)=x22+52xf(x)=\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac52x. ∑110f(n)=3852+5⋅552=330\sum_{1}^{10}f(n)=\frac{385}{2}+\frac{5\cdot55}{2}=330.

Question 28

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If, for a positive integer n, the quadratic equation, x(x+1)+(x+1)(x+2)+⋯+(x+n−1‾)(x+n)=10nx(x + 1) + (x + 1)(x + 2) + \dots + (x + \overline{n-1})(x + n) = 10n has two consecutive integral solutions, then n is equal to:

  1. A.12
  2. B.9
  3. C.10
  4. D.11

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The equation is x2+nx+n2−313=0x^2+nx+\frac{n^2-31}{3}=0. Roots I,I+1I, I+1: discriminant =1=1, i.e. n2−4(n2−31)3=1n^2-\frac{4(n^2-31)}{3}=1, n2=121n^2=121, n=11n=11.

Question 29

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The integral ∫π/43π/4dx1+cos⁡x\int_{\pi/4}^{3\pi/4} \frac{dx}{1 + \cos x} is equal to:

  1. A.−2-2
  2. B.2
  3. C.4
  4. D.−1-1

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 11+cos⁡x=csc⁡2x−csc⁡xcot⁡x\frac{1}{1+\cos x}=\csc^2x-\csc x\cot x; antiderivative −cot⁡x+csc⁡x-\cot x+\csc x, giving (1+2)−(2−1)=2(1+\sqrt2)-(\sqrt2-1)=2.

Question 30

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, decays into a nucleus B. At t=0t = 0, there is no nucleus B. At sometime t, the ratio of the number of B to that of A is 0.3. Then, t is given by :

  1. A.t=Tlog⁡(1.3)t = \frac{T}{\log(1.3)}
  2. B.t=T2log⁡2log⁡1.3t = \frac{T}{2}\frac{\log 2}{\log 1.3}
  3. C.t=Tlog⁡1.3log⁡2t = T\frac{\log 1.3}{\log 2}
  4. D.t=Tlog⁡(1.3)t = T\log(1.3)

Correct answer: C

Explanation: N0−NN=0.3⇒eλt=1.3\frac{N_0-N}{N}=0.3\Rightarrow e^{\lambda t}=1.3, t=ln⁡1.3ln⁡2Tt=\frac{\ln1.3}{\ln2}T.

Question 31

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The following observations were taken for determining surface tension T of water by capillary method: diameter of capillary, D=1.25×10−2D = 1.25\times10^{-2} m; rise of water, h=1.45×10−2h = 1.45\times10^{-2} m. Using g=9.80g = 9.80 m/s2^2 and the simplified relation T=rhg2×103T = \frac{rhg}{2}\times10^3 N/m, the possible error in surface tension is closest to :

  1. A.10 %
  2. B.0.15 %
  3. C.1.5 %
  4. D.2.4 %

Correct answer: C

Explanation: ΔTT=ΔDD+Δhh=0.011.25+0.011.45≈1.5%\frac{\Delta T}{T}=\frac{\Delta D}{D}+\frac{\Delta h}{h}=\frac{0.01}{1.25}+\frac{0.01}{1.45}\approx1.5\% (least counts 0.01 in the last digit).

Question 32

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An electron beam is accelerated by a potential difference V to hit a metallic target to produce X-rays. It produces continuous as well as characteristic X-rays. If λmin\lambda_{min} is the smallest possible wavelength of X-ray in the spectrum, the variation of log⁡λmin\log\lambda_{min} with log⁡V\log V is correctly represented in:

Figure for question 32
  1. A.Graph (1): horizontal line
  2. B.Graph (2): straight line with negative slope
  3. C.Graph (3): straight line through origin with positive slope
  4. D.Graph (4): straight line with positive slope and positive intercept

Correct answer: B

Explanation: λmin=hceV\lambda_{min}=\frac{hc}{eV}, so log⁡λmin=const−log⁡V\log\lambda_{min}=\text{const}-\log V: a straight line of slope −1-1.

Question 33

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder of length ℓ\ell and radius R about its perpendicular bisector is I. What is the ratio ℓ/R\ell/R such that the moment of inertia is minimum ?

  1. A.32\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}
  2. B.32\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}
  3. C.32\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}
  4. D.1

Correct answer: B

Explanation: I=m12(3R2+ℓ2)I=\frac m{12}(3R^2+\ell^2) with R2=mπρℓR^2=\frac{m}{\pi\rho\ell} (fixed mass). dIdℓ=0⇒2ℓ=3R2ℓ\frac{dI}{d\ell}=0\Rightarrow2\ell=\frac{3R^2}{\ell}, ℓR=32\frac\ell R=\sqrt{\frac32}.

Question 34

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A slender uniform rod of mass M and length ℓ\ell is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a vertical plane (see figure). There is negligible friction at the pivot. The free end is held vertically above the pivot and then released. The angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle θ\theta with the vertical is:

Figure for question 34
  1. A.2g3ℓcos⁡θ\frac{2g}{3\ell}\cos\theta
  2. B.3g2ℓsin⁡θ\frac{3g}{2\ell}\sin\theta
  3. C.2g3ℓsin⁡θ\frac{2g}{3\ell}\sin\theta
  4. D.3g2ℓcos⁡θ\frac{3g}{2\ell}\cos\theta

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Mgℓ2sin⁡θ=Mℓ23α⇒α=3g2ℓsin⁡θMg\frac\ell2\sin\theta=\frac{M\ell^2}{3}\alpha\Rightarrow\alpha=\frac{3g}{2\ell}\sin\theta.

Question 35

Physics · 4 marks · −1

CpC_p and CvC_v are specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume respectively. It is observed that Cp−Cv=aC_p - C_v = a for hydrogen gas and Cp−Cv=bC_p - C_v = b for nitrogen gas. The correct relation between a and b is

  1. A.a=28ba = 28b
  2. B.a=114ba = \frac{1}{14}b
  3. C.a=ba = b
  4. D.a=14ba = 14b

Correct answer: D

Explanation: For specific heats per unit mass, cp−cv=R/Mc_p-c_v=R/M: a=R/2a=R/2, b=R/28b=R/28, so a=14ba=14b.

Question 36

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a temperature T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass 100 gm, filled with 170 gm of water at room temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of the system is found to be 75∘75^\circC. T is given by: (Given : room temperature = 30∘30^\circC, specific heat of copper = 0.1 cal/gm∘^\circC)

  1. A.825∘825^\circC
  2. B.800∘800^\circC
  3. C.885∘885^\circC
  4. D.1250∘1250^\circC

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 100(0.1)(T−75)=100(0.1)(45)+170(1)(45)⇒T−75=810100(0.1)(T-75)=100(0.1)(45)+170(1)(45)\Rightarrow T-75=810, T=885∘T=885^\circC.

Question 37

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In amplitude modulation, sinusoidal carrier frequency used is denoted by ωc\omega_c and the signal frequency is denoted by ωm\omega_m. The bandwidth (Δωm)(\Delta\omega_m) of the signal is such that Δωm≪ωc\Delta\omega_m \ll \omega_c. Which of the following frequencies is not contained in the modulated wave?

  1. A.ωc−ωm\omega_c - \omega_m
  2. B.ωm\omega_m
  3. C.ωc\omega_c
  4. D.ωm+ωc\omega_m + \omega_c

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The AM wave contains ωc\omega_c and the side bands ωc±ωm\omega_c\pm\omega_m, not ωm\omega_m itself.

Question 38

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The temperature of an open room of volume 30 m3^3 increases from 17∘17^\circC to 27∘27^\circC due to the sunshine. The atmospheric pressure in the room remains 1×1051\times10^5 Pa. If nin_i and nfn_f are the number of molecules in the room before and after heating, then nf−nin_f - n_i will be :

  1. A.−2.5×1025-2.5\times10^{25}
  2. B.−1.61×1023-1.61\times10^{23}
  3. C.1.38×10231.38\times10^{23}
  4. D.2.5×10252.5\times10^{25}

Correct answer: A

Explanation: n=PVkTn=\frac{PV}{kT}: nf−ni=105⋅301.38×10−23(1300−1290)≈−2.5×1025n_f-n_i=\frac{10^5\cdot30}{1.38\times10^{-23}}\left(\frac1{300}-\frac1{290}\right)\approx-2.5\times10^{25}.

Question 39

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150 cm away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain interference fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the point where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide is

  1. A.15.6 mm
  2. B.1.56 mm
  3. C.7.8 mm
  4. D.9.75 mm

Correct answer: C

Explanation: m⋅650=n⋅520⇒m=4,n=5m\cdot650=n\cdot520\Rightarrow m=4,n=5. y=4⋅650×10−9⋅1.55×10−4=7.8y=\frac{4\cdot650\times10^{-9}\cdot1.5}{5\times10^{-4}}=7.8 mm.

Question 40

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A particle A of mass m and initial velocity v collides with a particle B of mass m2\frac{m}{2} which is at rest. The collision is head on, and elastic. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths λA\lambda_A to λB\lambda_B after the collision is:

  1. A.λAλB=12\frac{\lambda_A}{\lambda_B} = \frac{1}{2}
  2. B.λAλB=13\frac{\lambda_A}{\lambda_B} = \frac{1}{3}
  3. C.λAλB=2\frac{\lambda_A}{\lambda_B} = 2
  4. D.λAλB=23\frac{\lambda_A}{\lambda_B} = \frac{2}{3}

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Elastic: vA=v3v_A=\frac v3, vB=4v3v_B=\frac{4v}{3}. Momenta mv3\frac{mv}{3} and 2mv3\frac{2mv}{3}; λAλB=pBpA=2\frac{\lambda_A}{\lambda_B}=\frac{p_B}{p_A}=2.

Question 41

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7×10−26.7\times10^{-2} Am2^2 and moment of inertia 7.5×10−67.5\times10^{-6} kg m2^2 is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken for 10 complete oscillations is:

  1. A.8.76 s
  2. B.6.65 s
  3. C.8.89 s
  4. D.6.98 s

Correct answer: B

Explanation: T=2πIMB=2π7.5×10−66.7×10−4≈0.665T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{I}{MB}}=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{7.5\times10^{-6}}{6.7\times10^{-4}}}\approx0.665 s; 10 oscillations 6.65 s.

Question 42

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p⃗\vec{p}, which makes angle θ\theta with respect to x-axis. When subjected to an electric field E⃗1=Ei^\vec{E}_1 = E\hat{i}, it experiences a torque T⃗1=τk^\vec{T}_1 = \tau\hat{k}. When subjected to another electric field E⃗2=3E1j^\vec{E}_2 = \sqrt{3}E_1\hat{j} it experiences a torque T⃗2=−T⃗1\vec{T}_2 = -\vec{T}_1. The angle θ\theta is:

  1. A.90∘90^\circ
  2. B.30∘30^\circ
  3. C.45∘45^\circ
  4. D.60∘60^\circ

Correct answer: D

Explanation: ∣τ1∣=pEsin⁡θ|\tau_1|=pE\sin\theta, ∣τ2∣=3pEcos⁡θ|\tau_2|=\sqrt3pE\cos\theta; equal magnitudes give tan⁡θ=3\tan\theta=\sqrt3, θ=60∘\theta=60^\circ.

Question 43

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In a coil of resistance 100 Ω100\,\Omega, a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it as shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil is:

Figure for question 43
  1. A.275 Wb
  2. B.200 Wb
  3. C.225 Wb
  4. D.250 Wb

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Δϕ=R∫i dt=100⋅12⋅10⋅0.5=250\Delta\phi=R\int i\,dt=100\cdot\frac12\cdot10\cdot0.5=250 Wb.

Question 44

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A time dependent force F=6tF = 6t acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. If the particle starts from rest, the work done by the force during the first 1 sec. will be:

  1. A.18 J
  2. B.4.5 J
  3. C.22 J
  4. D.9 J

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Impulse ∫016t dt=3=mv\int_0^16t\,dt=3=mv, so v=3v=3 m/s; work =12(1)(9)=4.5=\frac12(1)(9)=4.5 J.

Question 45

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure. The ratio of the wavelengths r=λ1/λ2r = \lambda_1/\lambda_2, is given by:

Figure for question 45
  1. A.r=13r = \frac{1}{3}
  2. B.r=43r = \frac{4}{3}
  3. C.r=23r = \frac{2}{3}
  4. D.r=34r = \frac{3}{4}

Correct answer: A

Explanation: λ1\lambda_1: −E→−2E-E\to-2E (ΔE=E\Delta E=E); λ2\lambda_2: −E→−43E-E\to-\frac43E (ΔE=E3\Delta E=\frac E3). λ1λ2=13\frac{\lambda_1}{\lambda_2}=\frac13.

Question 46

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In the given circuit, the current in each resistance is:

Figure for question 46
  1. A.0 A
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.0.25 A
  4. D.0.5 A

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Each 1 Ω1\,\Omega resistor connects points whose potential difference is zero (the 2 V cells in the upper and lower rails cancel), so no current flows.

Question 47

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A body is thrown vertically upwards. Which one of the following graphs correctly represent the velocity vs time?

Figure for question 47
  1. A.Graph (1)
  2. B.Graph (2)
  3. C.Graph (3)
  4. D.Graph (4)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: v=u−gtv=u-gt: a single straight line with negative slope crossing the time axis.

Question 48

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A capacitance of 2 μ2\,\muF is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. A large number of 1 μ1\,\muF capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more than 300 V. The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is:

  1. A.32
  2. B.2
  3. C.16
  4. D.24

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Need at least 4 in series (4 x 300 V > 1 kV); each series row gives 14 μ\frac14\,\muF, so 8 parallel rows: 32 capacitors.

Question 49

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge on the capacitor of capacitance C will be:

Figure for question 49
  1. A.CEr1(r1+r)CE\frac{r_1}{(r_1+r)}
  2. B.CECE
  3. C.CEr1(r2+r)CE\frac{r_1}{(r_2+r)}
  4. D.CEr2(r+r2)CE\frac{r_2}{(r+r_2)}

Correct answer: D

Explanation: In steady state no current flows through the CC-r1r_1 branch; current Er+r2\frac{E}{r+r_2} flows through r2r_2, and the capacitor voltage equals the voltage across r2r_2.

Question 50

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-p-n transistor, the phase difference between the input and the output voltages will be:

  1. A.180∘180^\circ
  2. B.45∘45^\circ
  3. C.90∘90^\circ
  4. D.135∘135^\circ

Correct answer: A

Explanation: CE amplifier output is inverted relative to input: 180∘180^\circ.

Question 51

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following statements is false?

  1. A.Kirchhoff's second law represents energy conservation.
  2. B.Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive when all the four resistances are of the same order of magnitude.
  3. C.In a balanced wheatstone bridge if the cell and the galvanometer are exchanged, the null point is disturbed.
  4. D.A rheostat can be used as a potential divider.

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Exchanging cell and galvanometer changes the balance condition to PR=QS\frac PR=\frac QS, equivalent to PQ=RS\frac PQ=\frac RS; balance is not disturbed.

Question 52

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T. At time t=0t = 0, it is at its position of equilibrium. The kinetic energy - time graph of the particle will look like:

Figure for question 52
  1. A.Graph (1)
  2. B.Graph (2)
  3. C.Graph (3)
  4. D.Graph (4)

Correct answer: A

Explanation: KE∝cos⁡2ωtKE\propto\cos^2\omega t: maximum at t=0t=0, zero at T/4T/4, maximum at T/2T/2, period T/2T/2.

Question 53

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An observer is moving with half the speed of light towards a stationary microwave source emitting waves at frequency 10 GHz. What is the frequency of the microwave measured by the observer? (speed of light = 3×1083\times10^8 ms−1^{-1})

  1. A.15.3 GHz
  2. B.10.1 GHz
  3. C.12.1 GHz
  4. D.17.3 GHz

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Relativistic Doppler: f′=f1+β1−β=103≈17.3f'=f\sqrt{\frac{1+\beta}{1-\beta}}=10\sqrt3\approx17.3 GHz.

Question 54

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A man grows into a giant such that his linear dimensions increase by a factor of 9. Assuming that his density remains same, the stress in the leg will change by a factor of:

  1. A.181\frac{1}{81}
  2. B.9
  3. C.19\frac{1}{9}
  4. D.81

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Stress =mgA∝L3L2=L=\frac{mg}{A}\propto\frac{L^3}{L^2}=L: factor 9.

Question 55

Physics · 4 marks · −1

When a current of 5 mA is passed through a galvanometer having a coil of resistance 15 Ω15\,\Omega, it shows full scale deflection. The value of the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter of range 0 - 10V is:

  1. A.4.005×103 Ω4.005\times10^3\,\Omega
  2. B.1.985×103 Ω1.985\times10^3\,\Omega
  3. C.2.045×103 Ω2.045\times10^3\,\Omega
  4. D.2.535×103 Ω2.535\times10^3\,\Omega

Correct answer: B

Explanation: R=Vig−G=105×10−3−15=1985 ΩR=\frac{V}{i_g}-G=\frac{10}{5\times10^{-3}}-15=1985\,\Omega.

Question 56

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with distance d from centre of the earth is best represented by (R = Earth's radius):

Figure for question 56
  1. A.Graph (1)
  2. B.Graph (2)
  3. C.Graph (3)
  4. D.Graph (4)

Correct answer: A

Explanation: g∝dg\propto d inside (d<Rd<R) and g∝1d2g\propto\frac1{d^2} outside: linear rise to a peak at R, then inverse-square fall.

Question 57

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An external pressure P is applied on a cube at 0∘0^\circC so that it is equally compressed from all sides. K is the bulk modulus of the material of the cube and α\alpha is its coefficient of linear expansion. Suppose we want to bring the cube to its original size by heating. The temperature should be raised by:

  1. A.3PKα3PK\alpha
  2. B.P3αK\frac{P}{3\alpha K}
  3. C.PαK\frac{P}{\alpha K}
  4. D.3αPK\frac{3\alpha}{PK}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Compression ΔVV=PK\frac{\Delta V}{V}=\frac PK must equal thermal expansion 3αΔT3\alpha\Delta T: ΔT=P3αK\Delta T=\frac{P}{3\alpha K}.

Question 58

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length 25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20 cm. A beam of parallel light falls on the diverging lens. The final image formed is:

  1. A.real and at a distance of 6 cm from the convergent lens.
  2. B.real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.
  3. C.virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.
  4. D.real and at a distance of 40 cm from the divergent lens.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Diverging lens images at 25 cm before it, i.e. 40 cm before the converging lens. 1v+140=120⇒v=40\frac1v+\frac1{40}=\frac1{20}\Rightarrow v=40 cm, real.

Question 59

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A body of mass m=10−2m = 10^{-2} kg is moving in a medium and experiences a frictional force F=−kv2F = -kv^2. Its initial speed is v0=10v_0 = 10 ms−1^{-1}. If, after 10 s, its energy is 18mv02\frac{1}{8}mv_0^2, the value of k will be:

  1. A.10−110^{-1} kg m−1^{-1}s−1^{-1}
  2. B.10−310^{-3} kg m−1^{-1}
  3. C.10−310^{-3} kg s−1^{-1}
  4. D.10−410^{-4} kg m−1^{-1}

Correct answer: D

Explanation: vf=v02v_f=\frac{v_0}{2}. m(1vf−1v0)=kt⇒mv0=10km\left(\frac1{v_f}-\frac1{v_0}\right)=kt\Rightarrow\frac{m}{v_0}=10k, k=10−4k=10^{-4} kg/m.

Question 60

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

1 gram of a carbonate (M2CO3)(M_2CO_3) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of CO2CO_2. The molar mass of M2CO3M_2CO_3 in g mol−1^{-1} is:

  1. A.84.3
  2. B.118.6
  3. C.11.86
  4. D.1186

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Moles of carbonate = moles of CO2CO_2: M=10.01186=84.3M=\frac{1}{0.01186}=84.3 g/mol.

Question 61

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given C(graphite)+O2(g)→CO2(g)C_{(graphite)} + O_2(g) \rightarrow CO_2(g); ΔrH∘=−393.5\Delta_rH^\circ = -393.5 kJ mol−1^{-1}; H2(g)+12O2(g)→H2O(l)H_2(g) + \frac{1}{2}O_2(g) \rightarrow H_2O(l); ΔrH∘=−285.8\Delta_rH^\circ = -285.8 kJ mol−1^{-1}; CO2(g)+2H2O(l)→CH4(g)+2O2(g)CO_2(g) + 2H_2O(l) \rightarrow CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g); ΔrH∘=+890.3\Delta_rH^\circ = +890.3 kJ mol−1^{-1}. Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of ΔrH∘\Delta_rH^\circ at 298 K for the reaction C(graphite)+2H2(g)→CH4(g)C_{(graphite)} + 2H_2(g) \rightarrow CH_4(g) will be:

  1. A.+144.0+144.0 kJ mol−1^{-1}
  2. B.−74.8-74.8 kJ mol−1^{-1}
  3. C.−144.0-144.0 kJ mol−1^{-1}
  4. D.+74.8+74.8 kJ mol−1^{-1}

Correct answer: B

Explanation: ΔH=−393.5+890.3+2(−285.8)=−74.8\Delta H=-393.5+890.3+2(-285.8)=-74.8 kJ/mol.

Question 62

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45∘0.45^\circC when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g of benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a dimer in benzene, percentage association of acetic acid in benzene will be: (KfK_f for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol−1^{-1})

  1. A.80.4 %
  2. B.74.6 %
  3. C.94.6 %
  4. D.64.6 %

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 0.45=i⋅5.12⋅0.2/600.02⇒i=0.5270.45=i\cdot5.12\cdot\frac{0.2/60}{0.02}\Rightarrow i=0.527; for dimerisation i=1−α2i=1-\frac\alpha2, α=0.946\alpha=0.946.

Question 63

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The most abundant elements by mass in the body of a healthy human adult are: Oxygen (61.4%); Carbon (22.9%), Hydrogen (10.0%); and Nitrogen (2.6%). The weight which a 75 kg person would gain if all 1^1H atoms are replaced by 2^2H atoms is:

  1. A.37.5 kg
  2. B.7.5 kg
  3. C.10 kg
  4. D.15 kg

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Hydrogen mass =7.5=7.5 kg; replacing by deuterium doubles it, a gain of 7.5 kg.

Question 64

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

ΔU\Delta U is equal to

  1. A.Isobaric work
  2. B.Adiabatic work
  3. C.Isothermal work
  4. D.Isochoric work

Correct answer: B

Explanation: For an adiabatic process q=0q=0, so ΔU=w\Delta U=w.

Question 65

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The formation of which of the following polymers involves hydrolysis reaction?

  1. A.Bakelite
  2. B.Nylon 6, 6
  3. C.Terylene
  4. D.Nylon 6

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Nylon 6 is made by heating caprolactam with water: hydrolytic ring opening followed by polymerisation.

Question 66

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given ECl2/Cl−∘=1.36E^\circ_{Cl_2/Cl^-} = 1.36 V, ECr3+/Cr∘=−0.74E^\circ_{Cr^{3+}/Cr} = -0.74 V, ECr2O72−/Cr3+∘=1.33E^\circ_{Cr_2O_7^{2-}/Cr^{3+}} = 1.33 V, EMnO4−/Mn2+∘=1.51E^\circ_{MnO_4^-/Mn^{2+}} = 1.51 V. Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is

  1. A.Mn2+Mn^{2+}
  2. B.Cr3+Cr^{3+}
  3. C.Cl−Cl^-
  4. D.Cr

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The species with the lowest reduction potential couple (Cr in Cr3+/CrCr^{3+}/Cr, −0.74-0.74 V) is the strongest reducing agent.

Question 67

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The Tyndall effect is observed only when following conditions are satisfied: (a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used. (b) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light used. (c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are almost similar in magnitude. (d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.

  1. A.(b) and (d)
  2. B.(a) and (c)
  3. C.(b) and (c)
  4. D.(a) and (d)

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Scattering needs particles not much smaller than λ\lambda and a large refractive-index difference.

Question 68

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively acting as a/an: (a) ZnO+Na2O→Na2ZnO2ZnO + Na_2O \rightarrow Na_2ZnO_2 (b) ZnO+CO2→ZnCO3ZnO + CO_2 \rightarrow ZnCO_3

  1. A.base and base
  2. B.acid and acid
  3. C.acid and base
  4. D.base and acid

Correct answer: C

Explanation: With basic Na2ONa_2O it acts as an acid; with acidic CO2CO_2 it acts as a base (amphoteric).

Question 69

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following compounds will behave as a reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH solution?

Figure for question 69
  1. A.Furanose whose anomeric carbon bears CH2OHCH_2OH and H (no anomeric OH)
  2. B.Furanose with anomeric −OCH3-OCH_3 (glycoside)
  3. C.Pyranose with anomeric −CH2OCH3-CH_2OCH_3 group
  4. D.Furanose with anomeric −OCOCH3-OCOCH_3 (ester)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: In aqueous KOH the anomeric acetate ester is hydrolysed, liberating a free hemiacetal which reduces (glycosides and C-glycosides are stable to base).

Question 70

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The major product obtained in the following reaction is: (+)-C6H5CH(Br)CH2C6H5C_6H_5CH(Br)CH_2C_6H_5 (optically active 1-bromo-1,2-diphenylethane) →tBuOK, Δ\xrightarrow{{}^tBuOK,\ \Delta} ?

Figure for question 70
  1. A.C6H5CH=CHC6H5C_6H_5CH=CHC_6H_5
  2. B.(+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5(+)C_6H_5CH(O^tBu)CH_2C_6H_5
  3. C.(−)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5(-)C_6H_5CH(O^tBu)CH_2C_6H_5
  4. D.(±)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5(\pm)C_6H_5CH(O^tBu)CH_2C_6H_5

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Bulky strong base with heat favours E2, giving stilbene.

Question 71

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?

  1. A.CO
  2. B.O2O_2
  3. C.B2B_2
  4. D.NO

Correct answer: A

Explanation: CO (14 electrons) has all electrons paired; O2O_2 and B2B_2 have two unpaired electrons, NO one.

Question 72

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

On treatment of 100 mL of 0.1 M solution of CoCl3⋅6H2OCoCl_3\cdot6H_2O with excess AgNO3AgNO_3; 1.2×10221.2\times10^{22} ions are precipitated. The complex is:

  1. A.[Co(H2O)3Cl3]⋅3H2O[Co(H_2O)_3Cl_3]\cdot3H_2O
  2. B.[Co(H2O)6]Cl3[Co(H_2O)_6]Cl_3
  3. C.[Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2⋅H2O[Co(H_2O)_5Cl]Cl_2\cdot H_2O
  4. D.[Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl⋅2H2O[Co(H_2O)_4Cl_2]Cl\cdot2H_2O

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 0.01 mol complex. 1.2×10221.2\times10^{22} precipitated ions =0.02=0.02 mol of ions; the precipitate AgCl consists of Ag+Ag^+ and Cl−Cl^- ions in equal number, i.e. 0.01 mol AgCl, so one ionisable chloride per formula: [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl⋅2H2O[Co(H_2O)_4Cl_2]Cl\cdot2H_2O.

Question 73

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

pKapK_a of a weak acid (HA) and pKbpK_b of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their salt (AB) solution is:

  1. A.6.9
  2. B.7.0
  3. C.1.0
  4. D.7.2

Correct answer: A

Explanation: pH=7+pKa−pKb2=7−0.1=6.9pH=7+\frac{pK_a-pK_b}{2}=7-0.1=6.9.

Question 74

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The increasing order of the reactivity of the following halides for the SN1S_N1 reaction is: (I) CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3CH_3CH(Cl)CH_2CH_3 (II) CH3CH2CH2ClCH_3CH_2CH_2Cl (III) p−H3CO−C6H4−CH2Clp-H_3CO-C_6H_4-CH_2Cl

  1. A.(II) < (I) < (III)
  2. B.(I) < (III) < (II)
  3. C.(II) < (III) < (I)
  4. D.(III) < (II) < (I)

Correct answer: A

Explanation: SN1S_N1 rate follows carbocation stability: primary < secondary < p-methoxybenzyl.

Question 75

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Both lithium and magnesium display several similar properties due to the diagonal relationship; however, the one which is incorrect, is:

  1. A.both form soluble bicarbonates
  2. B.both form nitrides
  3. C.nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2NO_2 and O2O_2 on heating
  4. D.both form basic carbonates

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Mg forms a basic carbonate (MgCO3⋅Mg(OH)2MgCO_3\cdot Mg(OH)_2) but Li forms only the normal carbonate Li2CO3Li_2CO_3; the other three statements hold (bicarbonates exist in solution).

Question 76

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The correct sequence of reagents for the following conversion will be: 4-oxocyclohexane-1-carbaldehyde →\rightarrow 4-(2-hydroxypropan-2-yl)-1-methylcyclohexan-1-ol

Figure for question 76
  1. A.CH3MgBrCH_3MgBr, H+/CH3OHH^+/CH_3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+OH−[Ag(NH_3)_2]^+OH^-
  2. B.CH3MgBrCH_3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+OH−[Ag(NH_3)_2]^+OH^-, H+/CH3OHH^+/CH_3OH
  3. C.[Ag(NH3)2]+OH−[Ag(NH_3)_2]^+OH^-, CH3MgBrCH_3MgBr, H+/CH3OHH^+/CH_3OH
  4. D.[Ag(NH3)2]+OH−[Ag(NH_3)_2]^+OH^-, H+/CH3OHH^+/CH_3OH, CH3MgBrCH_3MgBr

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Tollens' oxidises CHO to COOH; esterify (H+/CH3OHH^+/CH_3OH); excess CH3MgBrCH_3MgBr converts the ketone to a tertiary alcohol and the ester to −C(CH3)2OH-C(CH_3)_2OH.

Question 77

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are:

  1. A.ClO2−ClO_2^- and ClO3−ClO_3^-
  2. B.Cl−Cl^- and ClO−ClO^-
  3. C.Cl−Cl^- and ClO2−ClO_2^-
  4. D.ClO−ClO^- and ClO3−ClO_3^-

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Cl2+2NaOH(cold, dil)→NaCl+NaOCl+H2OCl_2+2NaOH(\text{cold, dil})\rightarrow NaCl+NaOCl+H_2O.

Question 78

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following compounds will form significant amount of meta product during mono-nitration reaction?

Figure for question 78
  1. A.Phenyl acetate (C6H5OCOCH3C_6H_5OCOCH_3)
  2. B.Aniline (C6H5NH2C_6H_5NH_2)
  3. C.Acetanilide (C6H5NHCOCH3C_6H_5NHCOCH_3)
  4. D.Phenol (C6H5OHC_6H_5OH)

Correct answer: B

Explanation: In nitrating mixture aniline is protonated to anilinium (−NH3+-NH_3^+, meta-directing), giving about 47% m-nitroaniline.

Question 79

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

3-Methyl-pent-2-ene on reaction with HBr in presence of peroxide forms an addition product. The number of possible stereoisomers for the product is :

  1. A.Zero
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Four
  4. D.Six

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Anti-Markovnikov addition gives CH3CH(Br)CH(CH3)C2H5CH_3CH(Br)CH(CH_3)C_2H_5 with two stereocentres: 22=42^2=4 stereoisomers.

Question 80

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Two reactions R1R_1 and R2R_2 have identical pre-exponential factors. Activation energy of R1R_1 exceeds that of R2R_2 by 10 kJ mol−1^{-1}. If k1k_1 and k2k_2 are rate constants for reactions R1R_1 and R2R_2 respectively at 300 K, then ln⁡(k2/k1)\ln(k_2/k_1) is equal to : (R=8.314R = 8.314 J mol−1^{-1} K−1^{-1})

  1. A.12
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.8

Correct answer: C

Explanation: ln⁡k2k1=E1−E2RT=100008.314⋅300≈4\ln\frac{k_2}{k_1}=\frac{E_1-E_2}{RT}=\frac{10000}{8.314\cdot300}\approx4.

Question 81

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following molecules is least resonance stabilized?

Figure for question 81
  1. A.Furan
  2. B.Pyridine
  3. C.4,4-Dimethylcyclohexa-2,5-dien-1-one
  4. D.Benzene

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Furan, pyridine and benzene are aromatic; the cross-conjugated dienone is not.

Question 82

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The group having isoelectronic species is:

  1. A.O−,F−,Na,Mg+O^-, F^-, Na, Mg^+
  2. B.O2−,F−,Na,Mg2+O^{2-}, F^-, Na, Mg^{2+}
  3. C.O−,F−,Na+,Mg2+O^-, F^-, Na^+, Mg^{2+}
  4. D.O2−,F−,Na+,Mg2+O^{2-}, F^-, Na^+, Mg^{2+}

Correct answer: D

Explanation: O2−,F−,Na+,Mg2+O^{2-},F^-,Na^+,Mg^{2+} all have 10 electrons.

Question 83

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is: (Planck's Const. h=6.6262×10−34h = 6.6262\times10^{-34} Js; mass of electron =9.1091×10−31= 9.1091\times10^{-31} kg; charge of electron e=1.60210×10−19e = 1.60210\times10^{-19} C; permittivity of vacuum ϵ0=8.854185×10−12\epsilon_0 = 8.854185\times10^{-12} kg−1^{-1} m−3^{-3} A2^2)

  1. A.4.76 Å
  2. B.0.529 Å
  3. C.2.12 Å
  4. D.1.65 Å

Correct answer: C

Explanation: rn=0.529n2r_n=0.529n^2 Å; n=2n=2: 2.12 Å.

Question 84

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The major product obtained in the following reaction is: a bicyclic γ-lactone fused to a cyclopentene ring that also carries a −COOH-COOH group →DIBAL−H\xrightarrow{DIBAL-H} ?

Figure for question 84
  1. A.Cyclopentadiene ring bearing OH, −CH2CHO-CH_2CHO and −CHO-CHO
  2. B.Cyclopentadiene ring bearing −CH2CHO-CH_2CHO and −COOH-COOH (no OH)
  3. C.Cyclopentadiene ring bearing −CH2CHO-CH_2CHO and −CHO-CHO (no OH)
  4. D.Cyclopentadiene ring bearing OH, −CH2CHO-CH_2CHO and −COOH-COOH

Correct answer: D

Explanation: DIBAL-H reduces the lactone to the lactol, which opens to a hydroxy-aldehyde (−OH-OH and −CH2CHO-CH_2CHO). Under controlled conditions the carboxylic acid is only deprotonated, not reduced, giving option 4. If DIBAL-H is also assumed to reduce −COOH-COOH to −CHO-CHO, option 1 results.

Question 85

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?

  1. A.XeF2+PF5→[XeF]+PF6−XeF_2 + PF_5 \rightarrow [XeF]^+PF_6^-
  2. B.XeF6+H2O→XeOF4+2HFXeF_6 + H_2O \rightarrow XeOF_4 + 2HF
  3. C.XeF6+2H2O→XeO2F2+4HFXeF_6 + 2H_2O \rightarrow XeO_2F_2 + 4HF
  4. D.XeF4+O2F2→XeF6+O2XeF_4 + O_2F_2 \rightarrow XeF_6 + O_2

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Xe goes from +4 to +6 and O from +1 to 0; the others involve no change of oxidation state.

Question 86

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

A metal crystallises in a face centred cubic structure. If the edge length of its unit cell is 'a', the closest approach between two atoms in metallic crystal will be:

  1. A.22a2\sqrt{2}a
  2. B.2a\sqrt{2}a
  3. C.a2\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}
  4. D.2a2a

Correct answer: C

Explanation: In fcc, atoms touch along the face diagonal: 4r=2a4r=\sqrt2a, closest approach 2r=a22r=\frac{a}{\sqrt2}.

Question 87

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Sodium salt of an organic acid 'X' produces effervescence with conc. H2SO4H_2SO_4. 'X' reacts with the acidified aqueous CaCl2CaCl_2 solution to give a white precipitate which decolourises acidic solution of KMnO4KMnO_4. 'X' is:

  1. A.HCOONaHCOONa
  2. B.CH3COONaCH_3COONa
  3. C.Na2C2O4Na_2C_2O_4
  4. D.C6H5COONaC_6H_5COONa

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Oxalate gives CO+CO2CO+CO_2 with conc. H2SO4H_2SO_4 and white CaC2O4CaC_2O_4, which is oxidised by acidified KMnO4KMnO_4.

Question 88

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

A water sample has ppm level concentration of following anions: F−=10F^- = 10; SO42−=100SO_4^{2-} = 100; NO3−=50NO_3^- = 50. The anion/anions that make/makes the water sample unsuitable for drinking is/are:

  1. A.both SO42−SO_4^{2-} and NO3−NO_3^-
  2. B.only F−F^-
  3. C.only SO42−SO_4^{2-}
  4. D.only NO3−NO_3^-

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Limits: F−F^- about 1 ppm, SO42−SO_4^{2-} 500 ppm, NO3−NO_3^- 50 ppm; only fluoride exceeds.

Question 89

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following, upon treatment with tert-BuONa followed by addition of bromine water, fails to decolourize the colour of bromine?

Figure for question 89
  1. A.1-bromo-1,2-diphenylethane type: C6H5CH2CH(Br)C6H5C_6H_5CH_2CH(Br)C_6H_5
  2. B.1-bromoethyl phenyl ether: C6H5OCH(Br)CH3C_6H_5OCH(Br)CH_3
  3. C.2-bromo-1-cyclohexylpropan-1-one: C6H11COCH(Br)CH3C_6H_{11}COCH(Br)CH_3
  4. D.Bromomethyl cyclohexyl ether: C6H11OCH2BrC_6H_{11}OCH_2Br

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The first three have a β\beta-hydrogen and give alkenes by elimination (which decolourise bromine water); C6H11OCH2BrC_6H_{11}OCH_2Br has no β\beta-H on carbon, so no alkene forms.

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