JEE Main 2024 — 6 Apr Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

JEE Main · 2024 · with answers and explanations

questions
82
Total marks
268
Duration
180 minutes
Negative marking
−1

Subjects: Physics · Chemistry · Mathematics

Question 1

Physics · 4 marks · −1

To find the spring constant (k) of a spring experimentally, a student commits 2% positive error in the measurement of time and 1% negative error in measurement of mass. The percentage error in determining value of k is :

  1. A.5%
  2. B.1%
  3. C.3%
  4. D.4%

Correct answer: A

Explanation: k=4π2mT2k=\frac{4\pi^2m}{T^2}: −1%−2(2%)=−5%-1\%-2(2\%)=-5\%.

Question 2

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Torque; B. Magnetic field; C. Magnetic moment; D. Permeability of free space. List II: I. [M1L1T−2A−2][M^1L^1T^{-2}A^{-2}]; II. [L2A1][L^2A^1]; III. [M1T−2A−1][M^1T^{-2}A^{-1}]; IV. [M1L2T−2][M^1L^2T^{-2}]. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  2. B.A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. C.A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. D.A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Correct answer: C

Question 3

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A train starting from rest first accelerates uniformly up to a speed of 80 km/h for time t, then it moves with a constant speed for time 3t. The average speed of the train for this duration of journey will be (in km/h) :

  1. A.40
  2. B.80
  3. C.30
  4. D.70

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 40t+240t4t=70\frac{40t+240t}{4t}=70.

Question 4

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m1m_1 and m2m_2 (where m2>m1m_2>m_1). If the acceleration of the system is g2\frac{g}{\sqrt2}, then the ratio of the masses m1m2\frac{m_1}{m_2} is:

  1. A.1+55−1\frac{1+\sqrt5}{\sqrt5-1}
  2. B.2−12+1\frac{\sqrt2-1}{\sqrt2+1}
  3. C.1+52−1\frac{1+\sqrt5}{\sqrt2-1}
  4. D.3+12−1\frac{\sqrt3+1}{\sqrt2-1}

Correct answer: B

Question 5

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A bullet of mass 50 g is fired with a speed 100 m/s on a plywood and emerges with 40 m/s. The percentage loss of kinetic energy is :

  1. A.84%
  2. B.16%
  3. C.32%
  4. D.44%

Correct answer: A

Question 6

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Four particles A, B, C, D of mass m2\frac m2, m, 2m, 4m, have same momentum, respectively. The particle with maximum kinetic energy is :

  1. A.B
  2. B.A
  3. C.D
  4. D.C

Correct answer: B

Explanation: K=p22mK=\frac{p^2}{2m}.

Question 7

Physics · 4 marks · −1

To project a body of mass m from earth's surface to infinity, the required kinetic energy is (assume, the radius of earth is RER_E, g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth):

  1. A.2mgRE2mgR_E
  2. B.4mgRE4mgR_E
  3. C.mgREmgR_E
  4. D.12mgRE\frac12mgR_E

Correct answer: C

Question 8

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A small ball of mass m and density ρ is dropped in a viscous liquid of density ρ0\rho_0. After sometime, the ball falls with constant velocity. The viscous force on the ball is :

  1. A.mg(1−ρρ0)mg(1-\rho\rho_0)
  2. B.mg(1+ρρ0)mg\left(1+\frac{\rho}{\rho_0}\right)
  3. C.mg(ρ0ρ−1)mg\left(\frac{\rho_0}{\rho}-1\right)
  4. D.mg(1−ρ0ρ)mg\left(1-\frac{\rho_0}{\rho}\right)

Correct answer: D

Question 9

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A sample contains mixture of helium and oxygen gas. The ratio of root mean square speed of helium and oxygen in the sample, is:

  1. A.132\frac1{32}
  2. B.221\frac{2\sqrt2}{1}
  3. C.122\frac{1}{2\sqrt2}
  4. D.14\frac14

Correct answer: B

Question 10

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The specific heat at constant pressure of a real gas obeying PV2=RTPV^2=RT equation is:

  1. A.R3+CV\frac R3+C_V
  2. B.CV+RC_V+R
  3. C.CV+R2VC_V+\frac{R}{2V}
  4. D.R

Correct answer: C

Explanation: At constant P: 2PV dV=R dT2PV\,dV=R\,dT, so PdVdT=R2VP\frac{dV}{dT}=\frac{R}{2V}.

Question 11

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An element Δl=Δxi^\Delta l=\Delta x\hat i is placed at the origin and carries a large current I = 10 A. The magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m from the elements Δx of 1 cm length is:

Figure for question 11
  1. A.4×10−84\times10^{-8} T
  2. B.10×10−810\times10^{-8} T
  3. C.8×10−88\times10^{-8} T
  4. D.12×10−812\times10^{-8} T

Correct answer: A

Explanation: μ04πIΔlr2=10−7×0.10.25\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I\Delta l}{r^2}=10^{-7}\times\frac{0.1}{0.25}.

Question 12

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In an LCR series circuit, current is maximum at resonance. Statement II: Current in a purely resistive circuit can never be less than that in a series LCR circuit when connected to same voltage source. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct from the options given below:

  1. A.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  2. B.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  3. C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. D.Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Correct answer: C

Question 13

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with speed of 1.5×1081.5\times10^8 m s−1^{-1}. The relative permeability of the medium is 2.0. The relative permittivity will be:

  1. A.2
  2. B.4
  3. C.5
  4. D.1

Correct answer: A

Question 14

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In photoelectric experiment energy of 2.48 eV irradiates a photo sensitive material. The stopping potential was measured to be 0.5 V. Work function of the photo sensitive material is :

  1. A.1.68 eV
  2. B.2.48 eV
  3. C.1.98 eV
  4. D.0.5 eV

Correct answer: C

Question 15

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following phenomena does not explain by wave nature of light. A. reflection B. diffraction C. photoelectric effect D. interference E. polarization Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. A.E only
  2. B.B, D only
  3. C.C only
  4. D.A, C only

Correct answer: C

Question 16

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The ratio of the shortest wavelength of Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is :

  1. A.4 : 1
  2. B.1 : 4
  3. C.2 : 1
  4. D.1 : 2

Correct answer: A

Question 17

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The correct truth table for the following logic circuit is :

Figure for question 17
  1. A.A B Y: 0 0 1; 0 1 1; 1 0 0; 1 1 1
  2. B.A B Y: 0 0 0; 0 1 1; 1 0 0; 1 1 1
  3. C.A B Y: 0 0 1; 0 1 1; 1 0 0; 1 1 0
  4. D.A B Y: 0 0 0; 0 1 0; 1 0 0; 1 1 1

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Y=Aˉ+AB=Aˉ+BY=\bar A+AB=\bar A+B.

Question 18

Physics · 4 marks · −1

While measuring diameter of wire using screw gauge the following readings were noted. Main scale reading is 1 mm and circular scale reading is equal to 42 divisions. Pitch of screw gauge is 1 mm and it has 100 divisions on circular scale. The diameter of the wire is x50\frac{x}{50} mm. The value of x is :

  1. A.21
  2. B.142
  3. C.71
  4. D.42

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 1.42=71501.42=\frac{71}{50}.

Question 19

Physics · 4 marks · −1

For three vectors A⃗=(−xi^−6j^−2k^)\vec A=(-x\hat i-6\hat j-2\hat k), B⃗=(−i^+4j^+3k^)\vec B=(-\hat i+4\hat j+3\hat k) and C⃗=(−8i^−j^+3k^)\vec C=(-8\hat i-\hat j+3\hat k), if A⃗⋅(B⃗×C⃗)=0\vec A\cdot(\vec B\times\vec C)=0, then value of x is ______

Correct answer: 4

Explanation: B⃗×C⃗=(15,−21,33)\vec B\times\vec C=(15,-21,33); −15x+126−66=0-15x+126-66=0.

Question 20

Physics · 4 marks · −1

If the radius of earth is reduced to three-fourth of its present value without change in its mass then value of duration of the day of earth will be ______ hours 30 minutes.

Correct answer: 13

Explanation: T∝R2T\propto R^2: 24×916=13.524\times\frac9{16}=13.5 h.

Question 21

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small droplets of water. The ratio of surface energy of 1000 droplets to that of energy of big drop is 10x\frac{10}{x}. The value of x is ______

Correct answer: 1

Question 22

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A particle is doing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 0.06 m and time period 3.14 s. The maximum velocity of the particle is ______ cm/s.

Correct answer: 12

Question 23

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Three infinitely long charged thin sheets are placed as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric field at the point P is xσϵ0\frac{x\sigma}{\epsilon_0}. The value of x is ______ (all quantities are measured in SI units).

Figure for question 23

Correct answer: 2

Explanation: Fields at P (between x=ax=a and x=3ax=3a): from −σ-\sigma and −2σ-2\sigma (to the left of P) point towards them, from +σ+\sigma (to the right) points away from it; magnitudes add to σ2ϵ0(1+2+1)=2σϵ0\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}(1+2+1)=\frac{2\sigma}{\epsilon_0}.

Question 24

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A wire of resistance R and radius r is stretched till its radius became r/2. If new resistance of the stretched wire is xR, then value of x is ______

Correct answer: 16

Question 25

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A circular coil having 200 turns, 2.5×10−42.5\times10^{-4} m² area and carrying 100 μA current is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 1T. Initially the magnetic dipole moment (M⃗)(\vec M) was directed along B⃗\vec B. Amount of work, required to rotate the coil through 90° from its initial orientation such that M⃗\vec M becomes perpendicular to B⃗\vec B, is ______ μJ.

Correct answer: 5

Question 26

Physics · 4 marks · −1

When a dc voltage of 100 V is applied to an inductor, a dc current of 5 A flows through it. When an ac voltage of 200 V peak value is connected to inductor, its inductive reactance is found to be 20320\sqrt3 Ω. The power dissipated in the circuit is ______ W.

Correct answer: 250

Explanation: R=20R=20, Z=40Z=40, P=(200/2)21600×20=250P=\frac{(200/\sqrt2)^2}{1600}\times20=250 W.

Question 27

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The refractive index of prism is μ=3\mu=\sqrt3 and the ratio of the angle of minimum deviation to the angle of prism is one. The value of angle of prism is ______.

Correct answer: 60

Explanation: 2cos⁡A2=32\cos\frac A2=\sqrt3.

Question 28

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Radius of a certain orbit of hydrogen atom is 8.48 Å. If energy of electron in this orbit is E/x, then x = ______ (Given a0=0.529a_0=0.529 Å, E = energy of electron in ground state).

Correct answer: 16

Question 29

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The density of 'x' M solution ('x' molar) of NaOH is 1.12 g mL−1^{-1}, while in molality, the concentration of the solution is 3 m (3 molal). Then x is (Given : Molar mass of NaOH is 40 g/mol)

  1. A.3.5
  2. B.3.8
  3. C.2.8
  4. D.3.0

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 1000 g water + 120 g NaOH = 1120 g = 1 L solution.

Question 30

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The electron affinity value are negative for A. Be → Be−^- B. N → N−^- C. O → O2−^{2-} D. Na → Na−^- E. Al → Al−^- Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. A.D and E only
  2. B.A, B and C only
  3. C.A and D only
  4. D.A, B, D and E only

Correct answer: B

Question 31

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following material is not a semiconductor.

  1. A.Silicon
  2. B.Copper oxide
  3. C.Germanium
  4. D.Graphite

Correct answer: D

Question 32

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Match List I with List II. List-I (Hybridization): A. sp3sp^3; B. dsp2dsp^2; C. sp3dsp^3d; D. sp3d2sp^3d^2. List-II (Orientation in Space): I. Trigonal bipyramidal; II. Octahedral; III. Tetrahedral; IV. Square planar.

  1. A.A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  2. B.A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  3. C.A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  4. D.A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Correct answer: B

Question 33

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Match List I with List II. List-I (Compound/Species): A. SF4\text{SF}_4; B. BrF3\text{BrF}_3; C. BrO3−\text{BrO}_3^-; D. NH4+\text{NH}_4^+. List-II (Shape/Geometry): I. Tetrahedral; II. Pyramidal; III. See saw; IV. Bent T-Shape.

  1. A.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. B.A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  3. C.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. D.A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Correct answer: C

Question 34

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Match List I with List II. List-I (Molecule/Species): A. SO2Cl2\text{SO}_2\text{Cl}_2; B. NO; C. NO2−\text{NO}_2^-; D. I3−\text{I}_3^-. List-II (Property/Shape): I. Paramagnetic; II. Diamagnetic; III. Tetrahedral; IV. Linear.

  1. A.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. B.A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  3. C.A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  4. D.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Correct answer: B

Question 35

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

At −20°C and 1 atm pressure, a cylinder is filled with equal number of H2\text{H}_2, I2\text{I}_2 and HI molecules for the reaction H2(g)+I2(g)⇌2HI(g)\text{H}_2(g)+\text{I}_2(g)\rightleftharpoons2\text{HI}(g), the KpK_p for the process is x×10−1x\times10^{-1}. x = ______ [Given : R = 0.082 L atm K−1^{-1} mol−1^{-1}]

  1. A.0.01
  2. B.10
  3. C.2
  4. D.1

Correct answer: B

Question 36

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Functional group present in sulphonic acids is :

  1. A.−SO4H-\text{SO}_4\text{H}
  2. B.−SO3H-\text{SO}_3\text{H}
  3. C.−S(=O)-OH-\text{S(=O)-OH}
  4. D.−SO2-\text{SO}_2

Correct answer: B

Question 37

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following statements are correct? A. Glycerol is purified by vacuum distillation because it decomposes at its normal boiling point. B. Aniline can be purified by steam distillation as aniline is miscible in water. C. Ethanol can be separated from ethanol water mixture by azeotropic distillation because it forms azeotrope. D. An organic compound is pure, if mixed M.P. is remained same. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. A.A, B, C only
  2. B.A, C, D only
  3. C.A, B, D only
  4. D.B, C, D only

Correct answer: B

Question 38

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following is metamer of the given compound (X)? (X) = N-phenylcyclohexanecarboxamide (C6H5-NH-CO-C6H11\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{-NH-CO-C}_6\text{H}_{11})

  1. A.N-cyclohexylbenzamide (C6H11-NH-CO-C6H5\text{C}_6\text{H}_{11}\text{-NH-CO-C}_6\text{H}_5)
  2. B.N-phenylbenzamide
  3. C.N-cyclohexylcyclohexanecarboxamide
  4. D.4-(cyclohexylamino)benzaldehyde

Correct answer: A

Question 39

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Gallium is used in the manufacturing of thermometers. Statement II : A thermometer containing gallium is useful for measuring the freezing point (256 K) of brine solution. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. C.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  4. D.Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Gallium melts at 303 K, so it cannot measure 256 K.

Question 40

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

A conductivity cell with two electrodes (dark side) are half filled with infinitely dilute aqueous solution of a weak electrolyte. If volume is doubled by adding more water at constant temperature, the molar conductivity of the cell will -

Figure for question 40
  1. A.decrease sharply
  2. B.increase sharply
  3. C.remain same or can not be measured accurately
  4. D.depend upon type of electrolyte

Correct answer: C

Question 41

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The number of element from the following that do not belong to lanthanoids is Eu, Cm, Er, Tb, Yb and Lu

  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.1
  4. D.5

Correct answer: C

Question 42

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Match List I with List II. List-I (Compound): A. Iodoform; B. Carbon tetrachloride; C. CFC; D. DDT. List-II (Uses): I. Fire extinguisher; II. Insecticide; III. Antiseptic; IV. Refrigerants.

  1. A.A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. B.A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  3. C.A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  4. D.A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Correct answer: B

Question 43

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The following complexes [CoCl(NH3)5]2+[\text{CoCl(NH}_3)_5]^{2+} (A), [Co(CN)6]3−[\text{Co(CN)}_6]^{3-} (B), [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+[\text{Co(NH}_3)_5(\text{H}_2\text{O})]^{3+} (C), [Cu(H2O)4]2+[\text{Cu(H}_2\text{O)}_4]^{2+} (D). The correct order of A, B, C and D in terms of wavenumber of light absorbed is :

  1. A.C < D < A < B
  2. B.B < C < A < D
  3. C.A < C < B < D
  4. D.D < A < C < B

Correct answer: D

Question 44

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Picric acid is 2,4,6 - trinitrotoluene. Statement II : Phenol - 2,4 - disulphonic acid is treated with Conc. HNO3\text{HNO}_3 to get picric acid. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. A.Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. C.Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. D.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct answer: A

Question 45

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

In Reimer - Tiemann reaction, phenol is converted into salicylaldehyde through an intermediate. The structure of intermediate is ______

  1. A.Sodium 2-(dichloromethyl)phenoxide
  2. B.Sodium 2-formylphenoxide
  3. C.Sodium 2-methylphenoxide
  4. D.2-(Dichloromethyl)phenol

Correct answer: A

Question 46

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which among the following aldehydes is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?

  1. A.C3H7-CHO\text{C}_3\text{H}_7\text{-CHO}
  2. B.C2H5-CHO\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{-CHO}
  3. C.CH3-CHO\text{CH}_3\text{-CHO}
  4. D.H-CHO\text{H-CHO}

Correct answer: D

Question 47

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Match List I with List II. List-I (Precipitating reagent and conditions): A. NH4Cl+NH4OH\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}+\text{NH}_4\text{OH}; B. NH4OH+Na2CO3\text{NH}_4\text{OH}+\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3; C. NH4OH+NH4Cl+H2S\text{NH}_4\text{OH}+\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}+\text{H}_2\text{S} gas; D. dilute HCl. List-II (Cation): I. Mn2+\text{Mn}^{2+}; II. Pb2+\text{Pb}^{2+}; III. Al3+\text{Al}^{3+}; IV. Sr2+\text{Sr}^{2+}.

  1. A.A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. B.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  3. C.A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. D.A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Correct answer: A

Question 48

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

DNA molecule contains 4 bases whose structure are shown below. One of the structures is not correct, identify the incorrect base structure.

Figure for question 48
  1. A.Thymine-type pyrimidine (5-methyluracil) as drawn
  2. B.Guanine-type purine (drawn with a methyl group on the imidazole carbon)
  3. C.Cytosine as drawn
  4. D.Adenine as drawn

Correct answer: B

Question 49

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Frequency of the de-Broglie wave of electron in Bohr's first orbit of hydrogen atom is ______ ×1013\times10^{13} Hz (nearest integer). [Given : RHR_H (Rydberg constant) = 2.18×10−182.18\times10^{-18} J, h (Plank's constant) = 6.6×10−346.6\times10^{-34} J s.]

Correct answer: 661

Explanation: ν=2Eh=4.36×10−186.6×10−34=6.6×1015\nu=\frac{2E}{h}=\frac{4.36\times10^{-18}}{6.6\times10^{-34}}=6.6\times10^{15} Hz =661×1013=661\times10^{13}.

Question 50

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Number of molecules from the following which can exhibit hydrogen bonding is ______ (nearest integer). CH3OH\text{CH}_3\text{OH}, H2O\text{H}_2\text{O}, C2H6\text{C}_2\text{H}_6, C6H6\text{C}_6\text{H}_6, o-nitrophenol, HF, NH3\text{NH}_3

Correct answer: 5

Question 51

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

An ideal gas, Cˉv=52R\bar C_v=\frac52R, is expanded adiabatically against a constant pressure of 1 atm untill it doubles in volume. If the initial temperature and pressure is 298 K and 5 atm, respectively then the final temperature is ______ K (nearest integer). [Cˉv\bar C_v is the molar heat capacity at constant volume]

Correct answer: 274

Explanation: 52R(T−298)=−1×(V2−V1)=−R⋅2985\frac52R(T-298)=-1\times(V_2-V_1)=-\frac{R\cdot298}{5}: T=298−23.84≈274T=298-23.84\approx274 K.

Question 52

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The major product of the following reaction is P. CH3C≡C-CH3→(i) Na/liq. NH3 (ii) dil. KMnO4, 273 K\text{CH}_3\text{C}\equiv\text{C-CH}_3\xrightarrow{\text{(i) Na/liq. NH}_3\ \text{(ii) dil. KMnO}_4,\ 273\text{ K}} P. Number of oxygen atoms present in product 'P' is ______ (nearest integer)

Correct answer: 2

Explanation: trans-But-2-ene → butane-2,3-diol.

Question 53

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Consider the dissociation of the weak acid HX as given below HX(aq)⇌H+(aq)+X−(aq)\text{HX(aq)}\rightleftharpoons\text{H}^+(aq)+\text{X}^-(aq), Ka=1.2×10−5K_a=1.2\times10^{-5} [KaK_a : dissociation constant]. The osmotic pressure of 0.03M aqueous solution of HX at 300 K is ______ ×10−2\times10^{-2} bar (nearest integer). [Given : R = 0.083 L bar mol−1^{-1} K−1^{-1}]

Correct answer: 76

Explanation: α=0.02\alpha=0.02; π=1.02×0.03×0.083×300=0.762\pi=1.02\times0.03\times0.083\times300=0.762 bar.

Question 54

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Time required for 99.9% completion of a first order reaction is ______ times the time required for completion of 90% reaction. (nearest integer)

Correct answer: 3

Question 55

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Among CrO, Cr2O3\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3 and CrO3\text{CrO}_3, the sum of spin-only magnetic moment values of basic and amphoteric oxides is ______ 10−210^{-2} BM (nearest integer). (Given atomic number of Cr is 24)

Correct answer: 877

Explanation: CrO (d4^4, 4.90) + Cr2_2O3_3 (d3^3, 3.87) = 8.77.

Question 56

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The difference in the 'spin-only' magnetic moment values of KMnO4\text{KMnO}_4 and the manganese product formed during titration of KMnO4\text{KMnO}_4 against oxalic acid in acidic medium is ______ BM. (nearest integer)

Correct answer: 6

Question 57

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The major products from the following reaction sequence are product A and product B. Cyclohexene →(i) Br2 (ii) CH2=CH-CH2O−Na+ (1.0 eq.)\xrightarrow{\text{(i) Br}_2\ \text{(ii) CH}_2\text{=CH-CH}_2\text{O}^-\text{Na}^+\text{ (1.0 eq.)}} A; Cyclohexene →(i) Br2 (ii) alc. KOH (3 eq.)\xrightarrow{\text{(i) Br}_2\ \text{(ii) alc. KOH (3 eq.)}} B. The total sum of π electrons in product A and product B are ______ (nearest integer)

Correct answer: 8

Question 58

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

9.3 g of pure aniline upon diazotisation followed by coupling with phenol gives an orange dye. The mass of orange dye produced (assume 100% yield/conversion) is ______ g. (nearest integer)

Correct answer: 20

Explanation: 0.1 mol × 198 g/mol.

Question 59

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The number of triangles whose vertices are at the vertices of a regular octagon but none of whose sides is a side of the octagon is

  1. A.48
  2. B.56
  3. C.24
  4. D.16

Correct answer: D

Explanation: n(n−4)(n−5)6=16\frac{n(n-4)(n-5)}{6}=16.

Question 60

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let A={n∈[100,700]∩N:nA=\{n\in[100,700]\cap\mathbb{N}:n is neither a multiple of 3 nor a multiple of 4}\}. Then the number of elements in A is

  1. A.290
  2. B.280
  3. C.300
  4. D.310

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 601−200−151+50=300601-200-151+50=300.

Question 61

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a variable line of slope m > 0 passing through the point (4, −9) intersect the coordinate axes at the points A and B. The minimum value of the sum of the distances of A and B from the origin is

  1. A.30
  2. B.25
  3. C.15
  4. D.10

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 13+9m+4m≥2513+\frac9m+4m\ge25.

Question 62

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side of length 12. If the area and perimeter of any square inscribed in this circle are m and n, respectively, then m+n2m+n^2 is equal to

  1. A.408
  2. B.414
  3. C.396
  4. D.312

Correct answer: A

Explanation: r=23r=2\sqrt3, square side 262\sqrt6: 24+38424+384.

Question 63

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The mean and standard deviation of 20 observations are found to be 10 and 2, respectively. On rechecking, it was found that an observation by mistake was taken 8 instead of 12. The correct standard deviation is

  1. A.1.8
  2. B.1.94
  3. C.3.96\sqrt{3.96}
  4. D.3.86\sqrt{3.86}

Correct answer: C

Explanation: ∑x=204\sum x=204, ∑x2=2080−64+144=2160\sum x^2=2080-64+144=2160; σ2=108−104.04=3.96\sigma^2=108-104.04=3.96.

Question 64

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let the relations R1R_1 and R2R_2 on the set X = {1, 2, 3, ..., 20} be given by R1={(x,y):2x−3y=2}R_1=\{(x,y):2x-3y=2\} and R2={(x,y):−5x+4y=0}R_2=\{(x,y):-5x+4y=0\}. If M and N be the minimum number of elements required to be added in R1R_1 and R2R_2, respectively, in order to make the relations symmetric, then M + N equals

  1. A.12
  2. B.16
  3. C.8
  4. D.10

Correct answer: D

Explanation: R1R_1 has 6 pairs (none symmetric), R2R_2 has 4.

Question 65

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The function f:R→Rf:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}, f(x)=x2+2x−15x2−4x+9f(x)=\frac{x^2+2x-15}{x^2-4x+9}, x∈Rx\in\mathbb{R} is

  1. A.one-one but not onto.
  2. B.both one-one and onto.
  3. C.onto but not one-one.
  4. D.neither one-one nor onto.

Correct answer: D

Explanation: f(3)=f(−5)=0f(3)=f(-5)=0; bounded range.

Question 66

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If f(x)={x3sin⁡(1x),x≠00,x=0f(x)=\begin{cases}x^3\sin\left(\frac1x\right), & x\ne0\\ 0, & x=0\end{cases} then

  1. A.f′′(2π)=24−π22πf''\left(\frac2\pi\right)=\frac{24-\pi^2}{2\pi}
  2. B.f′′(2π)=12−π22πf''\left(\frac2\pi\right)=\frac{12-\pi^2}{2\pi}
  3. C.f′′(0)=1f''(0)=1
  4. D.f′′(0)=0f''(0)=0

Correct answer: A

Explanation: f′′(x)=6xsin⁡1x−4cos⁡1x−1xsin⁡1xf''(x)=6x\sin\frac1x-4\cos\frac1x-\frac1x\sin\frac1x; at 2π\frac2\pi: 12π−π2=24−π22π\frac{12}{\pi}-\frac\pi2=\frac{24-\pi^2}{2\pi}.

Question 67

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The interval in which the function f(x)=xxf(x)=x^x, x > 0, is strictly increasing is

  1. A.(0,1e]\left(0,\frac1e\right]
  2. B.(0,∞)(0,\infty)
  3. C.[1e,∞)\left[\frac1e,\infty\right)
  4. D.[1e2,1)\left[\frac1{e^2},1\right)

Correct answer: C

Question 68

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

∫0π/4cos⁡2xsin⁡2x(cos⁡3x+sin⁡3x)2dx\int_0^{\pi/4}\frac{\cos^2x\sin^2x}{(\cos^3x+\sin^3x)^2}dx is equal to

  1. A.1/6
  2. B.1/3
  3. C.1/12
  4. D.1/9

Correct answer: A

Explanation: With t=tan⁡xt=\tan x: ∫01t2(1+t3)2dt=16\int_0^1\frac{t^2}{(1+t^3)^2}dt=\frac16.

Question 69

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation (1+x2)dydx+y=etan⁡−1x(1+x^2)\frac{dy}{dx}+y=e^{\tan^{-1}x}, y(1) = 0. Then y(0) is

  1. A.12(eπ/2−1)\frac12\left(e^{\pi/2}-1\right)
  2. B.12(1−eπ/2)\frac12\left(1-e^{\pi/2}\right)
  3. C.14(1−eπ/2)\frac14\left(1-e^{\pi/2}\right)
  4. D.14(eπ/2−1)\frac14\left(e^{\pi/2}-1\right)

Correct answer: B

Explanation: yetan⁡−1x=12e2tan⁡−1x+Cye^{\tan^{-1}x}=\frac12e^{2\tan^{-1}x}+C, C=−12eπ/2C=-\frac12e^{\pi/2}.

Question 70

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation (2xlog⁡ex)dydx+2y=3xlog⁡ex(2x\log_ex)\frac{dy}{dx}+2y=\frac3x\log_ex, x > 0 and y(e−1)=0y(e^{-1})=0. Then, y(e) is equal to

  1. A.−3e-\frac3e
  2. B.−32e-\frac3{2e}
  3. C.−23e-\frac2{3e}
  4. D.−2e-\frac2e

Correct answer: A

Explanation: IF =ln⁡x=\ln x: ddx(yln⁡x)=3ln⁡x2x2\frac{d}{dx}(y\ln x)=\frac{3\ln x}{2x^2}, so yln⁡x=−32⋅ln⁡x+1x+Cy\ln x=-\frac32\cdot\frac{\ln x+1}{x}+C with C=0C=0; y(e)=−3ey(e)=-\frac3e.

Question 71

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The shortest distance between the lines x−32=y+15−7=z−95\frac{x-3}{2}=\frac{y+15}{-7}=\frac{z-9}{5} and x+12=y−11=z−9−3\frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-9}{-3} is

  1. A.838\sqrt3
  2. B.434\sqrt3
  3. C.535\sqrt3
  4. D.636\sqrt3

Correct answer: B

Explanation: d1×d2=(16,16,16)d_1\times d_2=(16,16,16); ∣(4,−16,0)⋅(1,1,1)∣3=43\frac{|(4,-16,0)\cdot(1,1,1)|}{\sqrt3}=4\sqrt3.

Question 72

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

A company has two plants A and B to manufacture motorcycles. 60% motorcycles are manufactured at plant A and the remaining are manufactured at plant B. 80% of the motorcycles manufactured at plant A are rated of the standard quality, while 90% of the motorcycles manufactured at plant B are rated of the standard quality. A motorcycle picked up randomly from the total production is found to be of the standard quality. If p is the probability that it was manufactured at plant B, then 126p is

  1. A.54
  2. B.66
  3. C.64
  4. D.56

Correct answer: A

Question 73

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let x1,x2,x3,x4x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4 be the solution of the equation 4x4+8x3−17x2−12x+9=04x^4+8x^3-17x^2-12x+9=0 and (4+x12)(4+x22)(4+x32)(4+x42)=12516m(4+x_1^2)(4+x_2^2)(4+x_3^2)(4+x_4^2)=\frac{125}{16}m. Then the value of m is

Correct answer: 221

Explanation: ∏(xi2+4)=∣p(2i)∣216\prod(x_i^2+4)=\frac{|p(2i)|^2}{16} with p(2i)=141−88ip(2i)=141-88i: 2762516=12516⋅221\frac{27625}{16}=\frac{125}{16}\cdot221.

Question 74

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let the first term of a series be T1=6T_1=6 and its rthr^{th} term Tr=3Tr−1+6rT_r=3T_{r-1}+6^r, r = 2, 3, ..., n. If the sum of the first n terms of this series is 15(n2−12n+39)(4⋅6n−5⋅3n+1)\frac15(n^2-12n+39)(4\cdot6^n-5\cdot3^n+1), then n is equal to ______

Correct answer: 6

Question 75

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If the second, third and fourth terms in the expansion of (x+y)n(x+y)^n are 135, 30 and 103\frac{10}{3}, respectively, then 6(n3+x2+y)6(n^3+x^2+y) is equal to ______

Correct answer: 806

Explanation: Ratios give n=5n=5, x=3x=3, y=13y=\frac13: 6(125+9+13)=8066(125+9+\frac13)=806.

Question 76

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a conic C pass through the point (4, −2) and P(x, y), x ≥ 3, be any point on C. Let the slope of the line touching the conic C only at a single point P be half the slope of the line joining the points P and (3, −5). If the focal distance of the point (7, 1) on C is d, then 12d equals ______

Correct answer: 75

Question 77

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let L1L_1, L2L_2 be the lines passing through the point P(0, 1) and touching the parabola 9x2+12x+18y−14=09x^2+12x+18y-14=0. Let Q and R be the points on the lines L1L_1 and L2L_2 such that the △PQR is an isosceles triangle with base QR. If the slopes of the lines QR are m1m_1 and m2m_2, then 16(m12+m22)16(m_1^2+m_2^2) is equal to ______

Correct answer: 68

Question 78

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let αβγ = 45; α, β, γ ∈ R. If x(α, 1, 2) + y(1, β, 2) + z(2, 3, γ) = (0, 0, 0) for some x, y, z ∈ R, xyz ≠ 0, then 6α + 4β + γ is equal to ______

Correct answer: 55

Question 79

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

For n ∈ N, if cot⁡−13+cot⁡−14+cot⁡−15+cot⁡−1n=π4\cot^{-1}3+\cot^{-1}4+\cot^{-1}5+\cot^{-1}n=\frac\pi4, then n is equal to ______

Correct answer: 47

Explanation: tan⁡−113+tan⁡−114+tan⁡−115=tan⁡−12324\tan^{-1}\frac13+\tan^{-1}\frac14+\tan^{-1}\frac15=\tan^{-1}\frac{23}{24}; remaining tan⁡−1147\tan^{-1}\frac1{47}.

Question 80

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let rk=∫01(1−x7)kdx∫01(1−x7)k+1dxr_k=\frac{\int_0^1(1-x^7)^kdx}{\int_0^1(1-x^7)^{k+1}dx}, k ∈ N. Then the value of ∑k=11017(rk−1)\sum_{k=1}^{10}\frac{1}{7(r_k-1)} is equal to ______

Correct answer: 65

Explanation: Integration by parts: rk=7k+87k+7r_k=\frac{7k+8}{7k+7}, so 17(rk−1)=k+1\frac{1}{7(r_k-1)}=k+1; sum =65=65.

Question 81

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a⃗=2i^−3j^+4k^\vec a=2\hat i-3\hat j+4\hat k, b⃗=3i^+4j^−5k^\vec b=3\hat i+4\hat j-5\hat k and a vector c⃗\vec c be such that a⃗×(b⃗+c⃗)+b⃗×c⃗=i^+8j^+13k^\vec a\times(\vec b+\vec c)+\vec b\times\vec c=\hat i+8\hat j+13\hat k. If a⃗⋅c⃗=13\vec a\cdot\vec c=13, then (24−b⃗⋅c⃗)(24-\vec b\cdot\vec c) is equal to ______

Correct answer: 46

Question 82

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let P be the point (10, −2, −1) and Q be the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point R(1, 7, 6) on the line passing through the points (2, −5, 11) and (−6, 7, −5). Then the length of the line segment PQ is equal to ______

Correct answer: 13

Explanation: Line: (2,−5,11)+t(2,−3,4)(2,-5,11)+t(2,-3,4); foot at t=−2t=-2: Q=(−2,1,3)Q=(-2,1,3); PQ=144+9+16=13PQ=\sqrt{144+9+16}=13.

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