JEE Main 2024 — 6 Apr Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)
JEE Main · 2024 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 77
- Total marks
- 252
- Duration
- 180 minutes
- Negative marking
- −1
Subjects: Physics · Chemistry · Mathematics
Question 1
Physics · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : Dimensions of specific heat is . Statement (II) : Dimensions of gas constant is . In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
- A.Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct
- B.Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect
- C.Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect
- D.Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct
Correct answer: B
Question 2
Physics · 4 marks · −1A body projected vertically upwards with a certain speed from the top of a tower reaches the ground in . If it is projected vertically downwards from the same point with the same speed, it reaches the ground in . Time required to reach the ground, if it is dropped from the top of the tower, is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 3
Physics · 4 marks · −1A body of weight 200 N is suspended from a tree branch through a chain of mass 10 kg. The branch pulls the chain by a force equal to (if g = 10 m/s²) :
- A.100 N
- B.200 N
- C.300 N
- D.150 N
Correct answer: C
Question 4
Physics · 4 marks · −1A car of 800 kg is taking turn on a banked road of radius 300 m and angle of banking 30°. If coefficient of static friction is 0.2 then the maximum speed with which car can negotiate the turn safely: (g = 10 m/s², )
- A.264 m/s
- B.51.4 m/s
- C.70.4 m/s
- D.102.8 m/s
Correct answer: B
Explanation: .
Question 5
Physics · 4 marks · −1When kinetic energy of a body becomes 36 times of its original value, the percentage increase in the momentum of the body will be:
- A.6%
- B.600%
- C.60%
- D.500%
Correct answer: D
Question 6
Physics · 4 marks · −1Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, a body weighed 300 N on the surface of earth. How much it would weigh at R/4 depth under surface of earth ?
- A.75 N
- B.300 N
- C.375 N
- D.225 N
Correct answer: D
Question 7
Physics · 4 marks · −1Pressure inside a soap bubble is greater than the pressure outside by an amount : (given : R = Radius of bubble S = Surface tension of bubble)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 8
Physics · 4 marks · −1A total of 48 J heat is given to one mole of helium kept in a cylinder. The temperature of helium increases by 2°C. The work done by the gas is: Given, R = 8.3 J K mol.
- A.24.9 J
- B.72.9 J
- C.48 J
- D.23.1 J
Correct answer: D
Explanation: J.
Question 9
Physics · 4 marks · −1Energy of 10 non rigid diatomic molecules at temperature T is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Question 10
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two identical conducting spheres P and S with charge Q on each, repel each other with a force 16 N. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere R is successively brought in contact with the two spheres. The new force of repulsion between P and S is :
- A.1 N
- B.6 N
- C.12 N
- D.4 N
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Charges become and : .
Question 11
Physics · 4 marks · −1The number of electrons flowing per second in the filament of a 110 W bulb operating at 220 V is : (Given e = C)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 12
Physics · 4 marks · −1Match List-I with List-II (Y vs X, shape of graph): (A) Y = magnetic susceptibility, X = magnetising field; (B) Y = magnetic field, X = distance from centre of a current carrying wire for x < a (where a = radius of wire); (C) Y = magnetic field, X = distance from centre of a current carrying wire for x > a; (D) Y = magnetic field inside solenoid, X = distance from centre. List-II: (I) straight line through origin; (II) constant then falling steeply near the end; (III) horizontal line; (IV) decreasing curve (hyperbola-like).

- A.(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
- B.(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- C.(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
- D.(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct answer: D
Question 13
Physics · 4 marks · −1In a coil, the current changes from −2 A to +2 A in 0.2 s and induces an emf of 0.1 V. The self inductance of the coil is :
- A.4 mH
- B.1 mH
- C.5 mH
- D.2.5 mH
Correct answer: C
Question 14
Physics · 4 marks · −1In finding out refractive index of glass slab the following observations were made through travelling microscope 50 vernier scale division = 49 MSD; 20 divisions on main scale in each cm. For mark on paper MSR = 8.45 cm, VC = 26. For mark on paper seen through slab MSR = 7.12 cm, VC = 41. For powder particle on the top surface of the glass slab MSR = 4.05 cm, VC = 1. (MSR = Main Scale Reading, VC = Vernier Coincidence) Refractive index of the glass slab is :
- A.1.52
- B.1.35
- C.1.42
- D.1.24
Correct answer: C
Explanation: LC = 0.001 cm; readings 8.476, 7.161, 4.051 cm; .
Question 15
Physics · 4 marks · −1For the thin convex lens, the radii of curvature are at 15 cm and 30 cm respectively. The focal length the lens is 20 cm. The refractive index of the material is :
- A.1.2
- B.1.8
- C.1.5
- D.1.4
Correct answer: C
Question 16
Physics · 4 marks · −1When UV light of wavelength 300 nm is incident on the metal surface having work function 2.13 eV, electron emission takes place. The stopping potential is: (Given hc = 1240 eV nm)
- A.1.5 V
- B.4.1 V
- C.2 V
- D.4 V
Correct answer: C
Question 17
Physics · 4 marks · −1The longest wavelength associated with Paschen series is : (Given SI unit)
- A. m
- B. m
- C. m
- D. m
Correct answer: B
Question 18
Physics · 4 marks · −1The acceptor level of a p-type semiconductor is 6eV. The maximum wavelength of light which can create a hole would be : Given hc = 1242 eV nm.
- A.414 nm
- B.103.5 nm
- C.207 nm
- D.407 nm
Correct answer: C
Question 19
Physics · 4 marks · −1In a vernier calliper, when both jaws touch each other, zero of the vernier scale shifts towards left and its division coincides exactly with a certain division on main scale. If 50 vernier scale divisions equal to 49 main scale divisions and zero error in the instrument is 0.04 mm then how many main scale divisions are there in 1 cm ?
- A.10
- B.5
- C.20
- D.40
Correct answer: C
Explanation: LC mm , so MSD = 0.5 mm: 20 per cm.
Question 20
Physics · 4 marks · −1A particle moves in a straight line so that its displacement x at any time t is given by . Its acceleration at any time t is where n = ______
Correct answer: 3
Explanation: , .
Question 21
Physics · 4 marks · −1Three balls of masses 2 kg, 4 kg and 6 kg respectively are arranged at centre of the edges of an equilateral triangle of side 2 m. The moment of intertia of the system about an axis through the centroid and perpendicular to the plane of triangle, will be ______ kg m².
Correct answer: 4
Explanation: Each ball is m from the centroid: .
Question 22
Physics · 4 marks · −1A wire of cross sectional area A, modulus of elasticity N m and length 2 m is stretched between two vertical rigid supports. When a mass of 2 kg is suspended at the middle it sags lower from its original position making angle radian on the points of support. The value of A is ______ m² (consider x << L). (given : g = 10 m/s²)

Correct answer: 1
Question 23
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two open organ pipes of lengths 60 cm and 90 cm resonate at and harmonics respectively. The difference of frequencies for the given modes is ______ Hz. (Velocity of sound in air = 333 m/s)
Correct answer: 740
Explanation: .
Question 24
Physics · 4 marks · −1A capacitor of 10 μF capacitance whose plates are separated by 10 mm through air and each plate has area 4 cm² is now filled equally with two dielectric media of , respectively as shown in figure. If new force between the plates is 8 N. The supply voltage is ______ V.

Correct answer: 80
Question 25
Physics · 4 marks · −1In the given figure an ammeter A consists of a 240Ω coil connected in parallel to a 10Ω shunt. The reading of the ammeter is ______ mA.

Correct answer: 160
Explanation: Ammeter resistance 9.6 Ω; A.
Question 26
Physics · 4 marks · −1A coil having 100 turns, area of m², carrying current of 1 mA is placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T such a way that plane of coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work done in turning the coil through 90° is ______ μJ.
Correct answer: 100
Explanation: J.
Question 27
Physics · 4 marks · −1For a given series LCR circuit it is found that maximum current is drawn when value of variable capacitance is 25 nF. If resistance of 200Ω and 100 mH inductor is being used in the given circuit. The frequency of ac source is ______ Hz. (given π² = 10)
Correct answer: 10
Question 28
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superimposed. The difference between maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam is xI. The value of x is ______.
Correct answer: 8
Explanation: .
Question 29
Physics · 4 marks · −1In Franck-Hertz experiment, the first dip in the current-voltage graph for hydrogen is observed at 10.2 V. The wavelength of light emitted by hydrogen atom when excited to the first excitation level is ______ nm. (Given hc = 1245 eV nm, e = C).
Correct answer: 122
Explanation: nm.
Question 30
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Molality (m) of 3M aqueous solution of NaCl is : (Given : Density of solution = 1.25 g mL, Molar mass in g mol : Na – 23, Cl – 35.5)
- A.1.9 m
- B.3.85 m
- C.2.79 m
- D.2.90 m
Correct answer: C
Explanation: 1250 g solution − 175.5 g NaCl = 1074.5 g water: .
Question 31
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The ratio for the reaction : is :
- A.
- B.
- C.RT
- D.1
Correct answer: A
Question 32
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Reaction): (A) ; (B) ; (C) ; (D) . List - II (Type of redox reaction): (I) Decomposition (II) Displacement (III) Disproportionation (IV) Combination.
- A.(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
- B.(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- C.(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
- D.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct answer: C
Question 33
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The correct statement among the following, for a "chromatography" purification method is :
- A.Organic compounds run faster than solvent in the thin layer chromatographic plate.
- B. is an integral value.
- C. of a polar compound is smaller than that of a non-polar compound.
- D.Non-polar compounds are retained at top and polar compounds come down in column chromatography.
Correct answer: C
Question 34
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical isomers of 2-butene is :
- A.cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature.
- B.cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers.
- C.cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
- D.trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
Correct answer: C
Question 35
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1How can an electrochemical cell be converted into an electrolytic cell?
- A.Applying an external opposite potential lower than cell.
- B.Reversing the flow of ions in salt bridge.
- C.Applying an external opposite potential greater than cell.
- D.Exchanging the electrodes at anode and cathode.
Correct answer: C
Question 36
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of number of unpaired electrons in it. (A) Sc (B) Cr (C) V (D) Ti (E) Mn Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
- B.(C) < (E) < (B) < (A) < (D)
- C.(A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B)
- D.(B) < (C) < (D) < (E) < (A)
Correct answer: C
Explanation: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.
Question 37
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The correct IUPAC name of is :
- A.dibromodi(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
- B.bis(trimethylphosphine)dibromoplatinum(II)
- C.dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
- D.bis[bromo(trimethylphosphine)]platinum(II)
Correct answer: C
Question 38
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement I : and both exhibit hybridisation. Statement II : Both and exhibit hybridisation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct answer: D
Explanation: BrF is spd; [Co(NH)] is dsp.
Question 39
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) (B) (C) (D) . List - II (d-electron distribution): (I) (II) (III) (IV) .
- A.(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
- B.(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
- C.(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
- D.(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct answer: C
Question 40
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1For (I) toluene, (II) benzene, (III) anisole, (IV) benzotrifluoride (), the correct arrangement for decreasing order of electrophilic substitution for above compounds is :
- A.(III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
- B.(IV) > (I) > (II) > (III)
- C.(III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
- D.(II) > (IV) > (III) > (I)
Correct answer: A
Question 41
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Anisole 'A' 'B'. The major products formed A and B respectively are:
- A.4-Nitroanisole and 2,6-dibromo-4-nitroanisole
- B.2-Nitroanisole and 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
- C.4-Nitroanisole and 2-bromo-4-nitroanisole
- D.2-Nitroanisole and 2,4-dibromo-6-nitroanisole
Correct answer: A
Question 42
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Aniline (A). Identify the product (A) in the following reaction.
- A.4-Chlorophenol
- B.4-Chloroaniline
- C.4-Aminophenol
- D.Phenol
Correct answer: D
Question 43
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1During the detection of acidic radical present in a salt, a student gets a pale yellow precipitate soluble with difficulty in solution when sodium carbonate extract was first acidified with dil. and then solution was added. This indicates presence of :
- A.Br
- B.I
- C.Cl
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 44
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Li (B) Na (C) Rb (D) Cs. List - II: (I) 589.2 (II) 455.5 (III) 670.8 (IV) 780.0
- A.(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
- B.(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
- C.(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
- D.(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Characteristic flame wavelengths (nm): Li 670.8, Na 589.2, Rb 780.0, Cs 455.5.
Question 45
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The incorrect statements regarding enzymes are : (A) Enzymes are biocatalysts. (B) Enzymes are non-specific and can catalyse different kinds of reactions. (C) Most Enzymes are globular proteins. (D) Enzyme - oxidase catalyses the hydrolysis of maltose into glucose. Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
- A.(B), (C) and (D)
- B.(B) and (D)
- C.(A), (B) and (C)
- D.(B) and (C)
Correct answer: B
Question 46
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following reactions ; dimethylglyoxime () . The number of protons that do not involve in hydrogen bonding in the product B is ______.
Correct answer: 12
Explanation: B = Ni(dmg): 12 methyl H are not H-bonded.
Question 47
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1For hydrogen atom, energy of an electron in first excited state is −3.4 eV, K.E. of the same electron of hydrogen atom is x eV. Value of x is ______ eV. (Nearest integer)
Correct answer: 34
Question 48
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1An amine (X) is prepared by ammonolysis of benzyl chloride. On adding p-toluenesulphonyl chloride to it the solution remains clear. Molar mass of the amine (X) formed is ______ g mol. (Given molar mass in g mol C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14)
Correct answer: 287
Explanation: Tertiary amine tribenzylamine, = 287.
Question 49
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B → C. ΔH = 400 kJ mol and ΔS = 0.2 kJ mol K. The reaction will become spontaneous above ______ K.
Correct answer: 2000
Question 50
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the two different first order reactions given below A + B → C (Reaction 1) P → Q (Reaction 2). The ratio of the half life of Reaction 1 : Reaction 2 is 5 : 2. If and represent the time taken to complete 2/3 and 4/5 of Reaction 1 and Reaction 2, respectively, then the value of the ratio is ______ (nearest integer). [Given : log(3) = 0.477 and log(5) = 0.699]
Correct answer: 17
Explanation: .
Question 51
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Among , and , the spin-only magnetic moment value of the species with least oxidising ability is ______ BM (Nearest integer). (Given atomic member V = 23, Mn = 25, Cr = 24)
Correct answer: 0
Explanation: All three are d.
Question 52
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Number of carbocations from the following that are not stabilized by hyperconjugation is ______. (2-methylbutan-2-yl cation), (tert-butyl), (tert-butyl) as drawn, cyclopentadienyl-type cation (as drawn), , isopropyl-type cation,

Correct answer: 5
Question 53
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1When 'x' mL methanol (molar mass = 32 g; density = 0.792 g/cm³) is added to 100 mL water (density = 1 g/cm³), the following diagram is obtained. x = ______ (nearest integer). [Given : Molal freezing point depression constant of water at 273.15 K is 1.86 K kg mol]

Correct answer: 543
Explanation: ; methanol mL.
Question 54
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Total number of species from the following with central atom utilising hybrid orbitals for bonding is ______. , , , , , , , HCHO, , ,
Correct answer: 6
Explanation: SO, CH, BCl, HCHO, CH, BF.
Question 55
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Phenetole () P (major product) Q (major product). The ratio of number of oxygen atoms to bromine atoms in the product Q is ______ .
Correct answer: 15
Explanation: Q = 2,6-dibromo-4-nitrophenetole: 3 O / 2 Br.
Question 56
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If are two distinct complex number such that , then
- A. lies on a circle of radius and lies on a circle of radius 1.
- B.both and lie on the same circle.
- C.either lies on a circle of radius or lies on a circle of radius 1.
- D.either lies on a circle of radius 1 or lies on a circle of radius .
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Squaring leads to .
Question 57
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let 0 ≤ r ≤ n. If , then 2n + 5r is equal to:
- A.50
- B.62
- C.55
- D.60
Correct answer: A
Explanation: , : , .
Question 58
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. A new triangle is formed by joining the middle points of all sides of the triangle ABC and the same process is repeated infinitely many times. If P is the sum of perimeters and Q is be the sum of areas of all the triangles formed in this process, then :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: , .
Question 59
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1A software company sets up m number of computer systems to finish an assignment in 17 days. If 4 computer systems crashed on the start of the second day, 4 more computer systems crashed on the start of the third day and so on, then it took 8 more days to finish the assignment. The value of m is equal to:
- A.150
- B.180
- C.160
- D.125
Correct answer: A
Explanation: .
Question 60
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If P(6, 1) be the orthocentre of the triangle whose vertices are A(5, −2), B(8, 3) and C(h, k), then the point C lies on the circle:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: and give .
Question 61
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the locus of the point, whose distances from the point (2, 1) and (1, 3) are in the ratio 5 : 4, is , then the value of is equal to :
- A.37
- B.437
- C.−27
- D.5
Correct answer: A
Explanation: : .
Question 62
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1is equal to :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Numerator , denominator .
Question 63
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. Let R be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if 4x ≤ 5y. Let m be the number of elements in R and n be the minimum number of elements from A × A that are required to be added to R to make it a symmetric relation. Then m + n is equal to :
- A.25
- B.24
- C.26
- D.23
Correct answer: A
Question 64
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be a function defined on R. Then the range of the function f(x) is equal to :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 65
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Suppose for a differentiable function h, h(0) = 0, h(1) = 1 and h′(0) = h′(1) = 2. If , then g′(0) is equal to:
- A.5
- B.4
- C.8
- D.3
Correct answer: B
Explanation: .
Question 66
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If constant, then the maximum value of a sin x + b cos x, is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: , : , .
Question 67
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the area of the region is then the value of 7a − 3 is equal to:
- A.0
- B.2
- C.−1
- D.1
Correct answer: C
Explanation: .
Question 68
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If three letters can be posted to any one of the 5 different addresses, then the probability that the three letters are posted to exactly two addresses is:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: .
Question 69
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let α, β be roots of . If , then is equal to ______
Correct answer: 4
Explanation: .
Question 70
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , x ≠ 0, and , where a, b ∈ N, then (a + b) equal to ______
Correct answer: 3660
Question 71
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1In a triangle ABC, BC = 7, AC = 8, AB = α ∈ N and . If , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to ______
Correct answer: 39
Question 72
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the system of equations , , has infinitely many solutions, then (λ − μ) is equal to ______
Correct answer: 38
Question 73
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Let be a function defined by . Let S be the set of all points in the interval [0, 8] at which f is not continuous. Then is equal to ______
Correct answer: 17
Explanation: Discontinuities at (the jumps at 4 cancel): sum 17.
Question 74
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let [t] denote the largest integer less than or equal to t. If , where a, b, c ∈ Z, then a + b + c is equal to ______
Correct answer: 23
Question 75
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the solution y(x) of the given differential equation passes through the point , then the value of is equal to ______
Correct answer: 3
Explanation: ; at : .
Question 76
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the shortest distance between the lines and is , then the largest possible value of |λ| is equal to ______
Correct answer: 43
Question 77
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1From a lot of 12 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 5 items is drawn at random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Let items in the sample be drawn one by one without replacement. If variance of X is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then n − m is equal to ______
Correct answer: 71
Explanation: Hypergeometric: ; .