JEE Main 2025 — 22 Jan Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)
JEE Main · 2025 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 74
- Total marks
- 296
- Duration
- 180 minutes
- Negative marking
- −1
Subjects: Mathematics · Physics · Chemistry
Question 1
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let E: , and H: . Let the distance between the foci of E and the foci of H be . If , and the ratio of the eccentricities of E and H is , then the sum of the lengths of their latus rectums is equal to :
- A.10
- B.8
- C.9
- D.7
Correct answer: B
Question 2
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The perpendicular distance, of the line from the point P(2, , 1), is :
- A.
- B.6
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 3
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is . If and are perpendicular to each other, then the number of values of in is :
- A.0
- B.2
- C.1
- D.3
Correct answer: A
Explanation: , ; none lies in , so 0.
Question 4
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let , . Then the numbers of local maximum and local minimum points of f, respectively, are :
- A.2 and 3
- B.1 and 3
- C.2 and 2
- D.3 and 2
Correct answer: A
Question 5
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , then the value of equals :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 6
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let a line pass through two distinct points P(, , 3) and Q, and be parallel to the vector . If the distance of the point Q from the point R(1, 3, 3) is 5, then the square of the area of is equal to :
- A.136
- B.148
- C.140
- D.144
Correct answer: A
Question 7
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Suppose that the number of terms in an A.P. is 2k, . If the sum of all odd terms of the A.P. is 40, the sum of all even terms is 55 and the last term of the A.P. exceeds the first term by 27, then k is equal to :
- A.8
- B.4
- C.6
- D.5
Correct answer: D
Explanation: and give , .
Question 8
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , where C is the constant of integration, then equals :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 9
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and . Then the number of many-one functions such that is equal to :
- A.163
- B.151
- C.127
- D.139
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Functions with 1 in range: ; subtract the bijections: 151.
Question 10
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1For a matrix M, let trace (M) denote the sum of all the diagonal elements of M. Let A be a matrix such that and trace (A) = 3. If B = adj(adj(2A)), then the value of + trace (B) equals :
- A.174
- B.56
- C.132
- D.280
Correct answer: D
Explanation: with : , , trace ; total 280.
Question 11
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let P be a point on the parabola and PQ be a focal chord of the parabola. If M and N are the foot of perpendiculars drawn from P and Q respectively on the directrix of the parabola, then the area of the quadrilateral PQMN is equal to :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 12
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If A and B are two events such that , and and are the roots of the equation , then the value of is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 13
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and be the coefficients of and x respectively in the expansion of , . If u and v satisfy the equations , , then u + v equals :
- A.4
- B.3
- C.8
- D.5
Correct answer: D
Question 14
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The sum of all values of satisfying and is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Second equation gives ; first gives . So , sum .
Question 15
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys and . The number of ways, in which these girls and boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but and are not adjacent to each other, is :
- A.120
- B.72
- C.144
- D.96
Correct answer: C
Explanation: .
Question 16
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The area of the region enclosed by the curves and is :
- A.
- B.5
- C.
- D.8
Correct answer: A
Question 17
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let the curve , , divide the region into two parts of areas and . Then equals :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Line is at distance from centre (3,0); minor segment area , so .
Question 18
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If is the solution of the differential equation , with , then is equal to :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: : with , ; .
Question 19
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the system of linear equations : , , , where , has infinitely many solutions, then is equal to :
- A.16
- B.22
- C.9
- D.12
Correct answer: A
Question 20
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and be the distinct roots of , . If m and M are the minimum and the maximum values of , then 16(M + m) equals :
- A.27
- B.25
- C.24
- D.17
Correct answer: B
Question 21
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let A(6, 8), B(, ) and C(, ), be the vertices of a triangle. If L(a, 9) and G(h, k) be its orthocenter and centroid respectively, then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 145
Question 22
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be the solution of the differential equation , such that . If then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 27
Question 23
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 465
Question 24
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let the distance between two parallel lines be 5 units and a point P lie between the lines at a unit distance from one of them. An equilateral triangle PQR is formed such that Q lies on one of the parallel lines, while R lies on the other. Then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 28
Question 25
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let . The number of relations on A, containing (1, 2) and (2, 3), which are reflexive and transitive but not symmetric, is ______.
Correct answer: 3
Question 26
Physics · 4 marks · −1A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating source of emf E. The current amplitude at resonant frequency is . If the value of resistance R becomes twice of its initial value then amplitude of current at resonance will be
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: At resonance , so doubling R halves the current.
Question 27
Physics · 4 marks · −1A tube of length L is shown in the figure. The radius of cross section at the point (1) is 2 cm and at the point (2) is 1 cm, respectively. If the velocity of water entering at point (1) is 2 m/s, then velocity of water leaving the point (2) will be

- A.4 m/s
- B.6 m/s
- C.8 m/s
- D.2 m/s
Correct answer: C
Explanation: m/s.
Question 28
Physics · 4 marks · −1Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F ? M, L, T and C stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge,
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: : .
Question 29
Physics · 4 marks · −1A small rigid spherical ball of mass M is dropped in a long vertical tube containing glycerine. The velocity of the ball becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is half of the density of the ball, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be (consider g as acceleration due to gravity)
- A.
- B.Mg
- C.2 Mg
- D. Mg
Correct answer: A
Explanation: .
Question 30
Physics · 4 marks · −1The torque due to the force about the origin, acting on a particle whose position vector is , would be
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 31
Physics · 4 marks · −1A transparent film of refractive index, 2.0 is coated on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.45. What is the minimum thickness of transparent film to be coated for the maximum transmission of Green light of wavelength 550 nm. [Assume that the light is incident nearly perpendicular to the glass surface.]
- A.137.5 nm
- B.275 nm
- C.68.7 nm
- D.94.8 nm
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Only the top reflection has a phase change, so reflection is minimum (transmission maximum) when : nm.
Question 32
Physics · 4 marks · −1An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B moves in a circle. If Bohr's quantization is applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: and give ; n = 2: .
Question 33
Physics · 4 marks · −1A ball of mass 100 g is projected with velocity 20 m/s at 60° with horizontal. The decrease in kinetic energy of the ball during the motion from point of projection to highest point is
- A.5 J
- B.zero
- C.20 J
- D.15 J
Correct answer: D
Explanation: J.
Question 34
Physics · 4 marks · −1A force is applied on a particle and it undergoes a displacement . What will be the value of b, if work done on the particle is zero.
- A.
- B.
- C.2
- D.0
Correct answer: A
Explanation: .
Question 35
Physics · 4 marks · −1For a diatomic gas, if for rigid molecules and for another diatomic molecules, but also having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is correct ? ( and are specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and volume)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: More degrees of freedom lower : 7/5 vs 9/7.
Question 36
Physics · 4 marks · −1A rectangular metallic loop is moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free region with a constant speed. When the loop is partially inside the magnate field, the plot of magnitude of induced emf () with time (t) is given by

- A.Graph: increases linearly from zero with t
- B.Graph: decreases (decaying curve) with t
- C.Graph: constant (horizontal line) with t
- D.Graph: increases non-linearly (upward curving) with t
Correct answer: C
Explanation: is constant while the loop is leaving the field.
Question 37
Physics · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : A simple pendulum is taken to a planet of mass and radius, 4 times and 2 times, respectively, than the Earth. The time period of the pendulum remains same on earth and the planet. Reason (R) : The mass of the pendulum remains unchanged at Earth and the other planet. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.(A) is false but (R) is true
- C.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
- D.(A) is true but (R) is false
Correct answer: C
Explanation: is unchanged, so T is same (A true); mass also unchanged (R true) but T does not depend on bob mass.
Question 38
Physics · 4 marks · −1A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes AB and CD as shown in figure. If the power of original lens is 4D then the power of a part of the divided lens is

- A.4D
- B.2D
- C.D
- D.8D
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Each piece is plano-convex: power halves to 2D (cutting along the axis does not change power).
Question 39
Physics · 4 marks · −1For a short dipole placed at origin O, the dipole moment P is along x-axis, as shown in the figure. If the electric potential and electric field at A are and , respectively, then the correct combination of the electric potential and electric field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is given by

- A.zero and
- B. and
- C.zero and
- D. and
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Equatorial point: V = 0; .
Question 40
Physics · 4 marks · −1Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables, (A) Internal energy, volume (V) and mass (M) are extensive variables. (B) Pressure (P), temperature (T) and density () are intensive variables. (C) Volume (V), temperature (T) and density () are intensive variables. (D) Mass (M), temperature (T) and internal energy are extensive variables. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(D) and (A) Only
- B.(A) and (B) Only
- C.(C) and (D) Only
- D.(B) and (C) Only
Correct answer: B
Question 41
Physics · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes produced by red light are closer as compared to those produced by blue light. Reason (R) : The fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
- B.(A) is true but (R) is false
- C.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- D.(A) is false but (R) is true
Correct answer: D
Question 42
Physics · 4 marks · −1A body of mass 100 g is moving in circular path of radius 2 m on vertical plane as shown in figure. The velocity of the body at point A is 10 m/s. The ratio of its kinetic energies at point B and C is : (Take acceleration due to gravity as 10 )

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: , above A. , ; ratio .
Question 43
Physics · 4 marks · −1A light source of wavelength illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength , then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of metal is 1 eV)
- A.3 eV
- B.2 eV
- C.5 eV
- D.6 eV
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Photon energy 3 eV → 6 eV; eV.
Question 44
Physics · 4 marks · −1The maximum percentage error in the measurment of density of a wire is [Given, mass of wire = g, radius of wire = cm, length of wire = cm]
- A.7
- B.4
- C.8
- D.5
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 45
Physics · 4 marks · −1A tube of length 1m is filled completely with an ideal liquid of mass 2M, and closed at both ends. The tube is rotated uniformly in horizontal plane about one of its ends. If the force exerted by the liquid at the other end is F then angular velocity of the tube is in SI unit. The value of is ______.
Correct answer: 1
Explanation: (L = 1 m), so .
Question 46
Physics · 4 marks · −1The net current flowing in the given circuit is ______ A.

Correct answer: 1
Explanation: In steady state the capacitor blocks everything beyond it. Current = 2/4 (through 4 Ω) + 2/(2+3‖6) = 0.5 + 0.5 = 1 A.
Question 47
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two long parallel wires X and Y, separated by a distance of 6 cm, carry currents of 5A and 4A, respectively, in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at point P at a distance of 4 cm from wire Y is T. The value of x is ______. Take permeability of free space as SI units.

Correct answer: 1
Explanation: , , opposite: net T, x = 1.
Question 48
Physics · 4 marks · −1A parallel plate capacitor of area A = 16 and separation between the plates 10 cm, is charged by a DC current. Consider a hypothetical plane surface of area inside the capacitor and parallel to the plates. At an instant, the current through the circuit is 6A. At the same instant the displacement current through is ______ mA.
Correct answer: 1200
Explanation: A = 1200 mA.
Question 49
Physics · 4 marks · −1A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant speed of . When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a circular path of radius 2 cm. The magnitude of electric field is N/C. The value of x is ______. Take the mass of the proton = kg.
Correct answer: 2
Explanation: T; , x = 2.
Question 50
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The maximum covalency of a non-metallic group 15 element 'E' with weakest E–E bond is :
- A.5
- B.4
- C.3
- D.6
Correct answer: B
Explanation: N–N single bond is the weakest (lone-pair repulsion); nitrogen has maximum covalency 4.
Question 51
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : An element in the extreme left of the periodic table forms acidic oxides. Statement (II) : Acid is formed during the reaction between water and oxide of a reactive element present in the extreme right of the periodic table. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct answer: D
Question 52
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify the number of structure/s from the following which can be correlated to D-glyceraldehyde. (A) Fischer chain: CHO / C–OH (right) / C–OH (right) / OH. (B) CHO / C–OH (right) / HO–C (left) / C–OH (right) / OH. (C) CHO / C–OH (right) / HO–C (left) / HO–C (left) / OH. (D) drawn upside down: OH (top) / HO–C (left) / C–OH (right) / HO–C (left) / CHO (bottom).

- A.four
- B.two
- C.three
- D.one
Correct answer: C
Explanation: D-series if the OH on the chiral carbon farthest from CHO is on the right (after rotating D by 180° it reads CHO/OH-right/HO-left/OH-right): A, B and D are D; C is L.
Question 53
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by Lassaigne's Test. Statement (II) : The elements present in the compound are converted from covalent form into ionic form by fusing the compound with Magnesium in Lassaigne's test. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Fusion is done with sodium, not magnesium.
Question 54
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : A spectral line will be observed for a transition. Statement (II) : and are degenerate orbitals. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct answer: B
Question 55
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the given figure and choose the correct option :

- A.Activation energy of backward reaction is and product is more stable than reactant.
- B.Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is and reactant is more stable than product.
- C.Activation energy of forward reaction is and product is more stable than reactant.
- D.Activation energy of forward reaction is and product is less stable than reactant.
Correct answer: D
Question 56
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula is given by relation :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 57
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The most stable carbocation from the following is :
- A.p-Methoxybenzyl cation (-MeO––)
- B.m-Methoxybenzyl cation (-MeO––)
- C.Benzyl cation (–)
- D.p-Methylbenzyl cation (-––)
Correct answer: A
Question 58
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their dipole moment : HBr, , and
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: 0.23 D < HBr 0.80 D < 0.95 D < 1.04 D.
Question 59
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify the homoleptic complex(es) that is/are low spin. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) . Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(C) and (D) only
- B.(C) only
- C.(A) and (C) only
- D.(B) and (E) only
Correct answer: A
Question 60
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 61
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Partial Derivatives): (A) (B) (C) (D) . List - II (Thermodynamic Quantity): (I) (II) (III) (IV) V. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- B.(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- C.(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- D.(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct answer: B
Question 62
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon in which pure metal acts as an anode and impure metal as a cathode. Statement (II) : The rate of corrosion is more in alkaline medium than in acidic medium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct answer: B
Question 63
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of the solution is :
- A.2 m
- B.3 m
- C.1.79 m
- D.2.79 m
Correct answer: D
Explanation: 1 L: mass 1250 g, NaCl 175.5 g, water 1074.5 g; .
Question 64
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match the Compounds (List - I) with the appropriate Catalyst/Reagents (List - II) for their reduction into corresponding amines. List - I (Compounds): (A) (B) Nitrobenzene (C) (D) N-alkylphthalimide. List - II (Catalyst/Reagents): (I) NaOH (aqueous) (II) /Ni (III) , (IV) Sn, HCl. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
- B.(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
- C.(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
- D.(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Correct answer: C
Question 65
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1RBr 2-Methylbutane. The maximum number of RBr producing 2-methylbutane by above sequence of reactions is ______. (Consider the structural isomers only)
- A.1
- B.4
- C.5
- D.3
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Monobromo derivatives of 2-methylbutane: 1-bromo-2-methyl-, 2-bromo-2-methyl-, 2-bromo-3-methyl- and 1-bromo-3-methylbutane = 4.
Question 66
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: In chlorine is in its highest (+7) state, so it cannot disproportionate.
Question 67
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1When sec-butylcyclohexane reacts with bromine in the presence of sunlight, the major product is :

- A.1-Bromo-2-(sec-butyl)cyclohexane (Br on the ring carbon adjacent to the substituent)
- B.2-Bromo-3-cyclohexylbutane (Br on the side-chain CH next to the branching CH)
- C.1-Bromo-1-(sec-butyl)cyclohexane (Br on the ring carbon bearing the side chain)
- D.2-Bromo-2-cyclohexylbutane (Br on the side-chain tertiary carbon)
Correct answer: D
Question 68
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The alkane from below having two secondary hydrogens is :
- A.2,2,4,5-Tetramethylheptane
- B.4-Ethyl-3,4-dimethyloctane
- C.2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane
- D.2,2,4,4-Tetramethylhexane
Correct answer: C
Explanation: 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane has only one (C-4): two secondary H.
Question 69
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Toluene (excess) Filter Residue (A). Residue (A) + HCl(dil) Compound (B). Structure of residue (A) and compound (B) formed respectively is :
- A.A = benzaldehyde (); B = benzoic acid ()
- B.A = benzaldehyde (); B = sodium benzoate ()
- C.A = bisulphite adduct ; B = benzaldehyde ()
- D.A = chromium complex ; B = benzaldehyde ()
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Etard reaction gives benzaldehyde, isolated as its crystalline bisulphite adduct (residue); dilute acid regenerates benzaldehyde.
Question 70
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The complex of ion and dimethyl glyoxime contains ______ number of Hydrogen (H) atoms.
Correct answer: 14
Explanation: : 14 H.
Question 71
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Niobium (Nb) and ruthenium (Ru) have "x" and "y" number of electrons in their respective 4d orbitals. The value of x + y is ______.
Correct answer: 11
Explanation: Nb: , Ru: ; 4 + 7 = 11.
Question 72
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The compound with molecular formula , which gives only one monobromo derivative and takes up four moles of hydrogen per mole for complete hydrogenation has ______ electrons.
Correct answer: 8
Question 73
Chemistry · 4 marks · −120 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The final concentration of the solution is ______ M. (Nearest integer)
Correct answer: 57
Explanation: M → 57.
Question 74
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following cases of standard enthalpy of reaction ( in kJ ): ; C(graphite) + ; . The magnitude of is ______ kJ (Nearest integer).
Correct answer: 95
Explanation: .