JEE Main 2025 — 28 Jan Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)
JEE Main · 2025 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 74
- Total marks
- 296
- Duration
- 180 minutes
- Negative marking
- −1
Subjects: Mathematics · Physics · Chemistry
Question 1
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , f(0) = −6, then f(1) is equal to :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: : , C = −6; .
Question 2
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and , θ > 0. If , and the sum of the diagonal elements of C is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is :
- A.65
- B.2049
- C.258
- D.127
Correct answer: A
Explanation: ; trace : 65.
Question 3
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Bag contains 6 white and 4 blue balls, Bag contains 4 white and 6 blue balls, and Bag contains 5 white and 5 blue balls. One of the bags is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If the ball is white, then the probability, that the ball is drawn from Bag , is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 4
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let the coefficients of three consecutive terms , and in the binomial expansion of be in a G.P. and let p be the number of all possible values of r. Let q be the sum of all rational terms in the binomial expansion of . Then p + q is equal to :
- A.287
- B.283
- C.295
- D.299
Correct answer: B
Explanation: No three consecutive binomial coefficients of are in G.P., so p = 0. Rational terms of : r = 0 gives , r = 12 gives ; q = 283. Hence p + q = 283.
Question 5
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let S be the set of all the words that can be formed by arranging all the letters of the word GARDEN. From the set S, one word is selected at random. The probability that the selected word will NOT have vowels in alphabetical order is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 6
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be defined by and be defined by . If both the functions are onto and or , then n(S) is equal to :
- A.30
- B.31
- C.29
- D.36
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A = [7, 35] (f(0) = 7, max f(2) = 35); B = [0, 1): integers 0 and 7..35 → 30.
Question 7
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let A, B, C be three points in xy-plane, whose position vector are given by , and respectively with respect to the origin O. If the distance of the point C from the line bisecting the angle between the vectors and is , then the sum of all the possible values of a is :
- A.2
- B.1
- C.9/2
- D.0
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Bisector y = x; ⇒ a = 5 or −4: sum 1.
Question 8
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The square of the distance of the point from the line in the direction of the vector is :
- A.44
- B.54
- C.66
- D.41
Correct answer: C
Question 9
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are along −x + 2y = 4 and x + y = 4. If m is the slope of its third side, then the sum, of all possible distinct values of m, is :
- A.
- B.6
- C.−6
- D.12
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The third side makes equal angles with the two given sides (slopes 1/2 and −1): , giving (the other branch adds no new value); sum of slopes 6.
Question 10
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the components of along and perpendicular to respectively, are and , then is equal to :
- A.16
- B.18
- C.26
- D.23
Correct answer: C
Explanation: : 26.
Question 11
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let f be a real valued continuous function defined on the positive real axis such that . If , then value of is :
- A.310
- B.270
- C.340
- D.320
Correct answer: A
Explanation: ⇒ ; .
Question 12
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If A and B are the points of intersection of the circle and the hyperbola and a point P moves on the line 2x − 3y + 4 = 0, then the centroid of lies on the line :
- A.4x − 9y = 12
- B.9x − 9y = 32
- C.6x − 9y = 20
- D.x + 9y = 36
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Intersections in x ≥ 3: x = 6, . Centroid , with ⇒ .
Question 13
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , a, b ∈ Z, then is equal to :
- A.8
- B.10
- C.2
- D.4
Correct answer: A
Question 14
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let f : R→R be a twice differentiable function such that f(2) = 1. If F(x) = xf(x) for all x∈R, and , then is equal to :
- A.15
- B.13
- C.11
- D.9
Correct answer: C
Explanation: F(2) = 2. \int xF\' = 2F(2)-\int F=6 ⇒ . \int x^2F\'\'=4F\'(2)-2\int xF\'=4F\'(2)-12=40 ⇒ F\'(2) = 13; answer 11.
Question 15
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1For positive integers n, if and , then the value of is :
- A.540
- B.1350
- C.675
- D.135
Correct answer: C
Explanation: : .
Question 16
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the midpoint of a chord of the ellipse is , and the length of the chord is , then α is :
- A.20
- B.22
- C.18
- D.26
Correct answer: B
Question 17
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let f : R − {0} → (−∞, 1) be a polynomial of degree 2, satisfying . If f(K) = −2K, then the sum of squares of all possible values of K is :
- A.7
- B.1
- C.9
- D.6
Correct answer: D
Explanation: (range ≤ 1): ⇒ ; sum of squares 6.
Question 18
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If α + iβ and γ + iδ are the roots of , , then αγ + βδ is equal to :
- A.2
- B.−6
- C.6
- D.−2
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Roots 2 and 1 − 2i: αγ + βδ = 2·1 + 0·(−2) = 2.
Question 19
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then the domain of is :
- A.(−∞, −1]∪[0, ∞)
- B.(−∞, −1]∪[1, ∞)
- C.(−∞, ∞) − {0}
- D.(−∞, ∞)
Correct answer: D
Explanation: always holds for integer [x].
Question 20
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The area of the region bounded by the curves and is:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Meet at : .
Question 21
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The interior angles of a polygon with n sides, are in an A.P. with common difference 6°. If the largest interior angle of the polygon is 219°, then n is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 20
Question 22
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let A and B be the two points of intersection of the line y + 5 = 0 and the mirror image of the parabola with respect to the line x + y + 4 = 0. If d denotes the distance between A and B, and a denotes the area of , where S is the focus of the parabola , then the value of (a + d) is ______.
Correct answer: 14
Question 23
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation, , , , then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 4
Question 24
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let . Then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 1
Explanation: Each term , so f(x) = tan x; the limit → .
Question 25
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The number of natural numbers, between 212 and 999, such that the sum of their digits is 15, is ______.
Correct answer: 64
Question 26
Physics · 4 marks · −1A concave mirror produces an image of an object such that the distance between the object and image is 20 cm. If the magnification of the image is '−3', then the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the mirror is :
- A.3.75 cm
- B.30 cm
- C.7.5 cm
- D.15 cm
Correct answer: D
Explanation: v = 3u, |v| − |u| = 20 ⇒ u = −10, v = −30; f = −7.5, R = 15 cm.
Question 27
Physics · 4 marks · −1A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential difference of 20 V. The distance between plates is 1 μm. The energy density between plates of capacitor is.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: V/m; J/m³.
Question 28
Physics · 4 marks · −1In the circuit shown here, assuming threshold voltage of diode is negligibly small, then voltage is correctly represented by :

- A.Positive half-cycles only (half-wave rectified above the axis)
- B.Full sine wave
- C. would be zero at all times
- D.Negative half-cycles only (below the axis)
Correct answer: D
Explanation: The diode conducts only on the half-cycle that makes A negative with respect to B, so shows only negative half-cycles.
Question 29
Physics · 4 marks · −1An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius a, and carrying a current I as shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic field at the origin O of the arc is given by :

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Arc (3/4 circle): ; lower semi-infinite wire with foot at its end: ; the upper wire passes through O’s line (no field). Total .
Question 30
Physics · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Knowing initial position and initial momentum is enough to determine the position and momentum at any time t for a simple harmonic motion with a given angular frequency ω. Reason (R) : The amplitude and phase can be expressed in terms of and . In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A) is true but (R) is false
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
- C.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- D.(A) is false but (R) is true
Correct answer: C
Question 31
Physics · 4 marks · −1The ratio of vapour densities of two gases at the same temperature is , then the ratio of r.m.s. velocities will be :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: : 5/2.
Question 32
Physics · 4 marks · −1Earth has mass 8 times and radius 2 times that of a planet. If the escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s, the escape velocity in km/s from the planet will be :
- A.5.6
- B.11.2
- C.2.8
- D.8.4
Correct answer: A
Explanation: : factor ⇒ 5.6.
Question 33
Physics · 4 marks · −1The kinetic energy of translation of the molecules in 50 g of gas at 17°C is
- A.4102.8 J
- B.3986.3 J
- C.4205.5 J
- D.3582.7 J
Correct answer: A
Explanation: J.
Question 34
Physics · 4 marks · −1A uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T acts perpendicular to a circular copper disc 20 cm in radius. The disc is having a uniform angular velocity of 10 π rad about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to the disc. What is the potential difference developed between the axis of the disc and the rim ? (π = 3.14)
- A.0.5024 V
- B.0.1256 V
- C.0.0628 V
- D.0.2512 V
Correct answer: D
Explanation: V.
Question 35
Physics · 4 marks · −1A body of mass 4 kg is placed on a plane at a point P having coordinate (3, 4) m. Under the action of force N, it moves to a new point Q having coordinates (6, 10)m in 4 sec. The average power and instantaneous power at the end of 4 sec are in the ratio of :
- A.13 : 6
- B.4 : 3
- C.1 : 2
- D.6 : 13
Correct answer: D
Explanation: W = F·Δr = 6 + 18 = 24 J, so W. Taking the body to start from rest, m/s and W: ratio 6 : 13.
Question 36
Physics · 4 marks · −1In a long glass tube, mixture of two liquids A and B with refractive indices 1.3 and 1.4 respectively, forms a convex refractive meniscus towards A. If an object placed at 13 cm from the vertex of the meniscus in A forms an image with a magnification of '−2' then the radius of curvature of meniscus is :
- A. cm
- B.1 cm
- C. cm
- D. cm
Correct answer: A
Explanation: ⇒ cm; ⇒ cm.
Question 37
Physics · 4 marks · −1A bar magnet has total length 2l = 20 units and the field point P is at a distance d = 10 units from the centre of the magnet. If the relative uncertainty of length measurement is 1%, then uncertainty of the magnetic field at point P is :

- A.3%
- B.4%
- C.5%
- D.10%
Correct answer: B
Explanation: with : .
Question 38
Physics · 4 marks · −1Which of the following phenomena can not be explained by wave theory of light ?
- A.Compton effect
- B.Diffraction of light
- C.Reflection of light
- D.Refraction of light
Correct answer: A
Question 39
Physics · 4 marks · −1The frequency of revolution of the electron in Bohr's orbit varies with n, the principal quantum number as
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 40
Physics · 4 marks · −1The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown in figure. What is the distance covered by the object between t = 0 to t = 4s ?

- A.13 m
- B.30 m
- C.11 m
- D.10 m
Correct answer: B
Explanation: m.
Question 41
Physics · 4 marks · −1A 400 g solid cube having an edge of length 10 cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the water ? (Given : density of water = 1000 kg )
- A.4000
- B.600
- C.400
- D.1400
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Submerged 400 cm³ of 1000 cm³: 600 cm³ outside.
Question 42
Physics · 4 marks · −1The magnetic field of an E.M. wave is given by (S.I. Units). The corresponding electric field in S.I. units is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Wave along +z; must be along +z: .
Question 43
Physics · 4 marks · −1A balloon and its content having mass M is moving up with an acceleration 'a'. The mass that must be released from the content so that the balloon starts moving up with an acceleration '3a' will be (Take 'g' as acceleration due to gravity)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: ⇒ .
Question 44
Physics · 4 marks · −1A uniform rod of mass 250 g having length 100 cm is balanced on a sharp edge at 40 cm mark. A mass of 400 g is suspended at 10 cm mark. To maintain the balance of the rod, the mass to be suspended at 90 cm mark, is
- A.290 g
- B.200 g
- C.190 g
- D.300 g
Correct answer: C
Explanation: ⇒ m = 190 g.
Question 45
Physics · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (A) Angular Impulse (B) Latent Heat (C) Electrical resistivity (D) Electromotive force. List - II: (I) (II) (III) (IV) . Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
- B.(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- C.(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- D.(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct answer: A
Question 46
Physics · 4 marks · −1An electric dipole of dipole moment Cm is placed in uniform electric field of magnitude V/m. Initially, the dipole moment is parallel to electric field. The work that needs to be done on the dipole to make its dipole moment opposite to the field, will be ______ J.
Correct answer: 12
Explanation: J.
Question 47
Physics · 4 marks · −1The value of current I in the electrical circuit as given below, when potential at A is equal to the potential at B, will be ______ A.

Correct answer: 2
Explanation: Balanced: R = 20 Ω. Arms 30 Ω and 60 Ω in parallel = 20 Ω; I = 40/20 = 2 A.
Question 48
Physics · 4 marks · −1The volume contraction of a solid copper cube of edge length 10 cm, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of Pa, would be ______ . (Given bulk modulus of copper = N )
Correct answer: 50
Explanation: m³ = 50 mm³.
Question 49
Physics · 4 marks · −1A conducting bar moves on two conducting rails as shown in the figure. A constant magnetic field B exists into the page. The bar starts to move from the vertex at time t = 0 with a constant velocity. If the induced EMF is E ∝ , then value of n is ______.

Correct answer: 1
Explanation: Length of bar in the circuit ∝ distance ∝ t: E = Bℓv ∝ t, n = 1.
Question 50
Physics · 4 marks · −1A thin transparent film with refractive index 1.4, is held on circular ring of radius 1.8 cm. The fluid in the film evaporates such that transmission through the film at wavelength 560 nm goes to a minimum every 12 seconds. Assuming that the film is flat on its two sides, the rate of evaporation is ______ .
Correct answer: 54
Explanation: Thickness change per minimum nm; rate .
Question 51
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify the inorganic sulphides that are yellow in colour : (A) (B) PbS (C) CuS (D) (E) . Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A) and (C) only
- B.(D) and (E) only
- C.(A), (D) and (E) only
- D.(A) and (B) only
Correct answer: C
Question 52
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Complex): (A) (B) (C) (D) . List - II (Hybridisation of central metal ion): (I) (II) (III) (IV) . Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
- B.(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
- C.(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- D.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct answer: C
Question 53
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The product B formed in the following reaction sequence is : 1-methyl-4-(prop-1-enyl)benzene (A) (Major) (B) (Major)

- A.p-Tolyl–CH2–CH(NC)–CH3 (isocyanide on C-2 of the side chain)
- B.p-Tolyl–CH2–CH(NC)–CH3 (same skeleton, drawn with NC below)
- C.p-Tolyl–CH(NC)–CH2CH3 (benzylic isocyanide)
- D.p-Tolyl–CH(CN)–CH3 (benzylic nitrile, one carbon shorter chain)
Correct answer: C
Explanation: HCl adds to give the benzylic chloride (stable benzylic cation); AgCN gives the isocyanide at the benzylic carbon.
Question 54
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Arrange the following in increasing order of solubility product : , AgBr, PbS, HgS
- A.HgS < PbS < AgBr <
- B.HgS < AgBr < PbS <
- C. < AgBr < HgS < PbS
- D.PbS < HgS < < AgBr
Correct answer: A
Question 55
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1For bacterial growth in a cell culture, growth law is very similar to the law of radioactive decay. Which of the following graphs is most suitable to represent bacterial colony growth ? Where N - Number of Bacteria at any time, - Initial number of Bacteria.

- A.N/N₀ rises from 0 and saturates (concave down)
- B.N/N₀ decays (concave up, decreasing)
- C.N/N₀ rises exponentially from a positive intercept (concave up)
- D.N/N₀ decreases linearly
Correct answer: C
Question 56
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify correct conversion during acidic hydrolysis from the following : (A) starch gives galactose. (B) cane sugar gives equal amount of glucose and fructose. (C) milk sugar gives glucose and galactose. (D) amylopectin gives glucose and fructose. (E) amylose gives only glucose. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(B), (C) and (E) only
- B.(C), (D) and (E) only
- C.(A), (B) and (C) only
- D.(B), (C) and (D) only
Correct answer: A
Question 57
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The purification method based on the following physical transformation is : Solid (X) Vapour (X) Solid (X)
- A.Sublimation
- B.Distillation
- C.Crystallization
- D.Extraction
Correct answer: A
Question 58
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The amphoteric oxide among , and , upon reaction with alkali leads to formation of an oxide anion. The oxidation state of V in the oxide anion is :
- A.+5
- B.+3
- C.+4
- D.+7
Correct answer: A
Explanation: NTA key: +5, i.e. the amphoteric oxide is taken as , which dissolves in alkali as vanadate (V +5).
Question 59
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider an elementary reaction A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + D(g). If the volume of reaction mixture is suddenly reduced to of its initial volume, the reaction rate will become 'x' times of the original reaction rate. The value of x is :
- A.3
- B.
- C.9
- D.
Correct answer: C
Question 60
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify product [A], [B] and [C] in the following reaction sequence. [A] [B] + [C]
- A.[A] : , [B] : , [C] : HCHO
- B.[A] : , [B] : , [C] : HCHO
- C.[A] : , [B] : , [C] : HCHO
- D.[A] : , [B] : , [C] :
Correct answer: B
Question 61
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : According to the Law of Octaves, the elements were arranged in the increasing order of their atomic number. Statement (II) : Meyer observed a periodically repeated pattern upon plotting physical properties of certain elements against their respective atomic numbers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct answer: A
Question 62
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The major product of the following reaction is : Major product

- A.2-Phenylhepta-2,4-diene
- B.2-Phenylhepta-2,5-diene
- C.6-Phenylhepta-3,5-diene
- D.6-Phenylhepta-2,4-diene
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Eliminations give the conjugated diene also conjugated with the ring: Ph–C(CH3)=CH–CH=CH–CH2CH3 (2-phenylhepta-2,4-diene).
Question 63
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% by mass. The volume in mL of the solution which contains 30 g of nitric acid is ______. Given : Density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 g/mL.
- A.32
- B.55
- C.45
- D.40
Correct answer: A
Explanation: 40 g solution / 1.25 = 32 mL.
Question 64
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same point by tracing the path A→B→C→D→A as shown in the three cases above. Choose the correct option regarding ΔU :

- A.ΔU(Case-III) > ΔU(Case-II) > ΔU(Case-I)
- B.ΔU(Case-I) > ΔU(Case-III) > ΔU(Case-II)
- C.ΔU(Case-I) > ΔU(Case-II) > ΔU(Case-III)
- D.ΔU(Case-I) = ΔU(Case-II) = ΔU(Case-III)
Correct answer: D
Explanation: ΔU = 0 for every cycle.
Question 65
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The total number of compounds from below when treated with hot giving benzoic acid is : toluene, ethylbenzene, isopropylbenzene (cumene), tert-butylbenzene, isobutylbenzene, 2-phenylpropan-2-ol, propylbenzene, 4,4′-dimethylbiphenyl.

- A.6
- B.5
- C.4
- D.3
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Benzylic H present: toluene, ethylbenzene, cumene, isobutylbenzene, propylbenzene (5). tert-Butylbenzene and 2-phenylpropan-2-ol lack benzylic H; the biphenyl gives a dicarboxylic acid.
Question 66
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify correct statements : (A) Primary amines do not give diazonium salts when treated with in acidic condition. (B) Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with and ethanolic KOH form carbylamines. (C) Secondary and tertiary amines also give carbylamine test. (D) Benzenesulfonyl chloride is known as Hinsberg's reagent. (E) Tertiary amines reacts with benzenesulfonyl chloride very easily. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A) and (B) only
- B.(B) and (D) only
- C.(D) and (E) only
- D.(B) and (C) only
Correct answer: B
Question 67
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : methylcyclopentane and hex-2-ene (drawn as skeletal structures) are isomeric compounds. Statement (II) : pentan-1-amine () and N-ethylpropan-1-amine... drawn as are functional group isomers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Both are (I true); primary and secondary amines of the same formula are treated as functional isomers (NCERT) (II true).
Question 68
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Saccharides): (A) Sucrose (B) Maltose (C) Lactose (D) Amylopectin. List - II (Glycosidic-linkages found): (I) α 1−4 (II) α 1−4 and α 1−6 (III) α 1−β 2 (IV) β 1−4. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
- B.(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
- C.(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
- D.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct answer: C
Question 69
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Which of the following is/are not correct with respect to energy of atomic orbitals of hydrogen atom ? (A) 1s < 2p < 3d < 4s (B) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p (C) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p (D) 1s < 2s < 4s < 3d. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(A) and (C) only
- B.(B) and (D) only
- C.(A) and (B) only
- D.(C) and (D) only
Correct answer: D
Question 70
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following data : Heat of formation of (g) = −393.5 kJ ; Heat of formation of (l) = −286.0 kJ ; Heat of combustion of benzene = −3267.0 kJ . The heat of formation of benzene is ______ kJ . (Nearest integer)
Correct answer: 48
Explanation: .
Question 71
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Electrolysis of 600 mL aqueous solution of NaCl for 5 min changes the pH of the solution to 12. The current in Amperes used for the given electrolysis is ______. (Nearest integer).
Correct answer: 2
Explanation: = 0.01 × 0.6 = 6 mmol = 6 mmol e⁻; ≈ 2 A.
Question 72
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1A group 15 element forms dπ − dπ bond with transition metals. It also forms hydride, which is a strongest base among the hydrides of other group members that form dπ − dπ bond. The atomic number of the element is ______.
Correct answer: 15
Explanation: P (forms dπ–dπ; is more basic than , ): 15.
Question 73
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Total number of molecules/species from following which will be paramagnetic is ______. , , , NO, , CO, , ,
Correct answer: 6
Explanation: , , , NO, , = 6.
Question 74
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The spin only magnetic moment (μ) value (B.M.) of the compound with strongest oxidising power among , TiO and VO is ______ B.M. (Nearest integer).
Correct answer: 5
Explanation: ( ): ≈ 5.