JEE Main 2026 — 21 Jan Shift 1 (9:00 AM - 12:00 PM) (Previous Year
JEE Main · 2026 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 75
- Total marks
- 300
- Duration
- 180 minutes
- Negative marking
- −1
Subjects: Mathematics · Physics · Chemistry
Question 1
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The number of relations, defined on the set , which are both reflexive and symmetric, is equal to :
- A.1024
- B.64
- C.16
- D.256
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Diagonal pairs are forced; the 6 unordered off-diagonal pairs are each in or out: .
Question 2
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the domain of the function is the interval , then is equal to :
- A.3
- B.5
- C.1
- D.2
Correct answer: A
Question 3
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The sum of all the roots of the equation , is :
- A.5
- B.3
- C.4
- D.1
Correct answer: C
Explanation: or gives ; sum .
Question 4
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , then the value of is :
- A.128
- B.175
- C.145
- D.162
Correct answer: C
Explanation: . when (8 values, each term 16) and otherwise (17 values, each term 1): .
Question 5
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be a G.P. of increasing positive terms such that and . Then is equal to :
- A.3256
- B.3248
- C.3244
- D.3252
Correct answer: D
Question 6
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The number of strictly increasing functions from the set to the set such that for , is equal to :
- A.22
- B.27
- C.21
- D.28
Correct answer: D
Question 7
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the coefficient of in the expansion of is and the coefficients of and are both zero, then is equal to :
- A.1300
- B.1500
- C.1403
- D.1483
Correct answer: C
Question 8
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let the mean and variance of 7 observations , , be 8 and 16 respectively. Two numbers are chosen from one after another without replacement, then the probability, that the smaller number among the two chosen numbers is less than 4, is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 9
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let the foci of a hyperbola coincide with the foci of the ellipse . If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is 5, then the length of its latus rectum is :
- A.
- B.12
- C.16
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Ellipse foci . Hyperbola: , , . Latus rectum .
Question 10
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let a point A lie between the parallel lines and such that its distances from and are 6 and 3 units, respectively. Then the area (in sq. units) of the equilateral triangle ABC, where the points B and C lie on the lines and , respectively, is :
- A.
- B.
- C.27
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: With side and AB making angle with the lines: , (or ). Solving gives , area .
Question 11
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let PQ and MN be two straight lines touching the circle at the points A and B respectively. Let O be the centre of the circle and . Then the locus of the point of intersection of the lines PQ and MN is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Centre , . The tangents' intersection is at distance from the centre: , i.e. .
Question 12
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let O be the vertex of the parabola and Q be any point on it. Let the locus of the point P, which divides the line segment OQ internally in the ratio be the conic C. Then the equation of the chord of C, which is bisected at the point , is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 13
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The value of is equal to :
- A.8
- B.2
- C.6
- D.4
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 14
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point on the line . Then the length of the projection of the vector on the vector is :
- A.3
- B.
- C.
- D.4
Correct answer: C
Question 15
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and be vectors such that and . If are the possible values of , then the equation represents a circle, for K equal to :
- A.2
- B.-1
- C.1
- D.4
Correct answer: C
Question 16
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let , and be a vector such that . If , then is equal to :
- A.33
- B.35
- C.27
- D.30
Correct answer: C
Question 17
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The value of is equal to :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Question 18
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The area of the region, inside the ellipse and outside the region bounded by the curves and , is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Ellipse area ; the square has area 2 and lies inside the ellipse. Required area .
Question 19
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be the solution curve of the differential equation , . Then the value of is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Linear with : , . At : .
Question 20
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be a twice differentiable function such that , and . Then is equal to :
- A.2
- B.1
- C.18
- D.9
Correct answer: A
Explanation: , so .
Question 21
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1For some , let and be such that . Then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 225
Question 22
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and for , . Then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 2
Question 23
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let . If the number of elements in S such that is a multiple of 5 is p and the number of elements in S such that is a square of a prime number is q, then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 1333
Question 24
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be a twice differentiable function such that the quadratic equation in , has two equal roots for every . If , , and is the largest interval in which the function is increasing, then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 1
Explanation: gives , so , increasing on : .
Question 25
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 17
Question 26
Physics · 4 marks · −1Consider a modified Bernoulli equation. . If has the dimension of time then the dimensions of and are ______, ______ respectively.
- A. and
- B. and
- C. and
- D. and
Correct answer: D
Explanation: has dimensions of pressure, so ; .
Question 27
Physics · 4 marks · −1Potential energy versus distance is given by the graph. Rank various regions as per the magnitudes of the force acting on a particle from high to low.

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: : BC 3, AB 1, DE 0.5, CD 0.
Question 28
Physics · 4 marks · −1A 4 kg mass moves under the influence of a force N where is the time in second. If mass starts from origin at , the velocity and position after s will be :
- A.,
- B.,
- C.,
- D.,
Correct answer: D
Explanation: ; ; .
Question 29
Physics · 4 marks · −1An aluminium and steel rods having same lengths and cross-sections are joined to make total length of 120 cm at C. The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminium and steel are C and C, respectively. The length of this composite rod when its temperature is raised to C, is ______ cm.
- A.120.20
- B.120.03
- C.120.15
- D.120.06
Correct answer: C
Explanation: cm, so cm.
Question 30
Physics · 4 marks · −1Water flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. The difference in height between the water columns in vertical tubes is 5 cm and the area of cross-sections at A and B are 6 cm and 3 cm respectively. The rate of flow will be ______ cm/s. (take m/s)

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: , m/s; cm/s.
Question 31
Physics · 4 marks · −1The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by : V/m. The expression for magnetic field associated with this electromagnetic wave is ______ T.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Question 32
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two strings having linear densities kg/m and kg/m and lengths m and m respectively are joined. Free ends of A and B are tied to two rigid supports C and D, respectively creating a tension of 500 N in the wire. Two identical pulses, sent from C and D ends, take time and , respectively, to reach the joint. The ratio is :
- A.1.08
- B.1.90
- C.1.18
- D.1.67
Correct answer: C
Explanation: : .
Question 33
Physics · 4 marks · −1Initially a satellite of 100 kg is in a circular orbit of radius . This satellite can be moved to a circular orbit of radius by supplying J of energy. The value of is ______. (Take Radius of Earth m and m/s)
- A.1000
- B.150
- C.100
- D.500
Correct answer: A
Explanation: J, .
Question 34
Physics · 4 marks · −1A uniform rod of mass and length suspended by means of two identical inextensible light strings as shown in figure. Tension in one string immediately after the other string is cut, is ______. ( acceleration due to gravity)

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: About the remaining end: , , so .
Question 35
Physics · 4 marks · −1A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C, when there is vacuum within the parallel plates. A sheet having thickness of the separation between the plates and relative permittivity K is introduced between the plates. The new capacitance of the system is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: .
Question 36
Physics · 4 marks · −1A current carrying solenoid is placed vertically and a particle of mass with charge is released from rest. The particle moves along the axis of solenoid. If is acceleration due to gravity then the acceleration of the charged particle will satisfy :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Velocity is parallel to the axial field, so the magnetic force is zero: .
Question 37
Physics · 4 marks · −1A conducting circular loop of area 1.0 m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies as Tesla. If the resistance of the loop is 100 , then the average thermal energy dissipated in the loop in one period is ______ J.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: , mean power W over a period s: energy J.
Question 38
Physics · 4 marks · −1A 1 m long metal rod AB completes the circuit as shown in figure. The area of circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.10 T. If the resistance of the total circuit is 2 then the force needed to move the rod towards right with constant speed of 1.5 m/s is ______ N.

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: N.
Question 39
Physics · 4 marks · −1In a double slit experiment the distance between the slits is 0.1 cm and the screen is placed at 50 cm from the slits plane. When one slit is covered with a transparent sheet having thickness and refractive index , the central fringe shifts by 0.2 cm. The value of is ______ cm.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: cm.
Question 40
Physics · 4 marks · −1A light wave described by (in SI units) falls on a metal surface of work function 2.8 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron is (approximately) ______ eV. J.s. and C)
- A.3.8
- B.5.1
- C.6.0
- D.7.8
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Highest rad/s: eV; eV.
Question 41
Physics · 4 marks · −1If an alpha particle with energy 7.7 MeV is bombarded on a thin gold foil, the closest distance from nucleus it can reach is ______ m. (Atomic number of gold and in SI units)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: m.
Question 42
Physics · 4 marks · −1A gas based geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 5.0 litres per minute from C to C. The rate of consumption of the gas is ______ g/s. (Take heat of combustion of gas J/g) specific heat capacity of water J/kgC
- A.0.21
- B.2.1
- C.0.42
- D.4.2
Correct answer: C
Explanation: W; g/s.
Question 43
Physics · 4 marks · −1The given circuit works as :

- A.NOR gate
- B.OR gate
- C.AND gate
- D.NAND gate
Correct answer: D
Explanation: , then inverted: (NAND).
Question 44
Physics · 4 marks · −1A point charge of C is placed at origin. The work done in moving a point charge 2 C from point m to m is ______ J. ( in SI units)
- A.
- B.0
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: , : J.
Question 45
Physics · 4 marks · −1In an experiment the values of two spring constants were measured as N/m and N/m. If these springs are connected in parallel, then the percentage error in equivalent spring constant is :
- A.1.33%
- B.1.67%
- C.2.33%
- D.2.67%
Correct answer: B
Explanation: .
Question 46
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two identical thin rods of mass kg and length m are connected as shown in figure. Moment of inertia of the combined rod system about an axis passing through point P and perpendicular to the plane of the rods is kg m. The value of is ______.

Correct answer: 17
Explanation: .
Question 47
Physics · 4 marks · −1A collimated beam of light of diameter 2 mm is propagating along -axis. The beam is required to be expanded in a collimated beam of diameter 14 mm using a system of two convex lenses. If first lens has focal length 40 mm, then the focal length of second lens is ______ mm.
Correct answer: 280
Explanation: mm.
Question 48
Physics · 4 marks · −1In a microscope the objective is having focal length cm and eye-piece is having focal length cm. The tube length is 32 cm. The magnification produced by this microscope for normal adjustment is ______.
Correct answer: 100
Explanation: .
Question 49
Physics · 4 marks · −1The heat generated in 1 minute between points A and B in the given circuit, when a battery of 9 V with internal resistance of 1 is connected across these points is ______ J.

Correct answer: 1080
Explanation: Balanced bridge (): , A, heat J.
Question 50
Physics · 4 marks · −110 mole of oxygen is heated at constant volume from C to C. The change in the internal energy of the gas is ______ cal. (The molecular specific heat of oxygen at constant pressure, cal/molC and cal/molC.)
Correct answer: 500
Explanation: ; cal.
Question 51
Chemistry · 4 marks · −180 mL of a hydrocarbon on mixing with 264 mL of oxygen in a closed U-tube undergoes complete combustion. The residual gases after cooling to 273 K occupy 224 mL. When the system is treated with KOH solution, the volume decreases to 64 mL. The formula of the hydrocarbon is :
- A.CH
- B.CH
- C.CH
- D.CH
Correct answer: C
Explanation: CO = 224-64 = 160 mL = 2 x 80, so 2 C; O used = 264-64 = 200 mL = 2.5 per molecule = with , so : CH.
Question 52
Chemistry · 4 marks · −114.0 g of calcium metal is allowed to react with excess HCl at 1.0 atm pressure and 273 K. Which of the following statements is **incorrect** ? [Given : Molar mass in g mol of Ca 40, Cl 35.5, H 1]
- A.0.35 mol of H gas is evolved.
- B.7.84 L of H gas is evolved.
- C.The limiting reagent is calcium metal.
- D.33.3 g of CaCl is produced.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: 0.35 mol Ca gives 0.35 mol CaCl = 38.85 g, not 33.3 g.
Question 53
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement I : The number of species among SF, NH, [NiCl], XeF, [PtCl], SeF and [Ni(CN)], that have tetrahedral geometry is 3. Statement II : In the set [NO, BeH, BF, AlCl], all the molecules have incomplete octet around central atom. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- B.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- C.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- D.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Only NH and [NiCl] are tetrahedral (2), so I is false; NO (odd electron), BeH, BF, AlCl are all octet-deficient, so II is true.
Question 54
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement I : When an electric discharge is passed through gaseous hydrogen, the hydrogen molecules dissociate and the energetically excited hydrogen atoms produce electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies. Statement II : The frequency of second line of Balmer series obtained from He is equal to that of first line of Lyman series obtained from hydrogen atom. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- C.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct answer: B
Explanation: He Balmer 2nd line: = H Lyman 1st line .
Question 55
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1For the reaction, NO 2NO, graph is plotted as shown below. Identify **correct** statements. A. Standard free energy change for the reaction is kJ mol. B. As in graph is positive, NO will not dissociate into NO at all. C. Reverse reaction will go to completion. D. When 1 mole of NO changes into equilibrium mixture, value of kJ mol. E. When 2 mole of NO changes into equilibrium mixture, for equilibrium mixture is kJ mol. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

- A.B and C only
- B.A and D only
- C.D and E only
- D.C and E only
Correct answer: C
Question 56
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Which of the following graphs between pressure 'p' versus volume 'V' represents the maximum work done ?

- A.Graph (1): rectangle of height 2.0 bar and width 22.4 L (as described)
- B.Graph (2): cycle with curved expansion 2.0 to 1.0 bar, isobaric return at 1.0 bar
- C.Graph (3): lens-shaped cycle between (22.4 L, 2.0 bar) and (44.8 L, 1.0 bar)
- D.Graph (4): single curved expansion from (22.4 L, 2.0 bar) to (44.8 L, 1.0 bar)
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Graph (1) encloses the largest area (2.0 bar x 22.4 L).
Question 57
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Elements P and Q form two types of non-volatile, non-ionizable compounds PQ and PQ. When 1 g of PQ is dissolved in 50 g of solvent 'A', was 1.176 K while when 1 g of PQ is dissolved in 50 g of solvent 'A', was 0.689 K. ( of 'A' = 5 K kg mol). The molar masses of elements P and Q (in g mol) respectively, are :
- A.70, 110
- B.60, 25
- C.25, 60
- D.65, 145
Correct answer: C
Explanation: , ; so Q = 60, P = 25.
Question 58
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Which of the following represents the correct trend for the mentioned property ? A. F > P > S > B - First Ionization Energy; B. Cl > F > S > P - Electron Affinity; C. K > Al > Mg > B - Metallic character; D. KO > NaO > MgO > AlO - Basic character. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.A, B and D only
- B.A and B only
- C.B and C only
- D.A, B, C and D
Correct answer: A
Question 59
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement I : The number of pairs among [SiO, CO], [SnO, SnO], [PbO, PbO] and [GeO, GeO], which contain oxides that are both amphoteric is 2. Statement II : BF is an electron deficient molecule, can act as a Lewis acid, forms adduct with NH and has a trigonal planar geometry. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct answer: C
Question 60
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1MnO, in acidic medium, disproportionates to :
- A.MnO and MnO
- B.MnO and MnO
- C.MnO and MnO
- D.MnO and MnO
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 61
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements : Statement I : Among [Cu(NH)], [Ni(en))], [Ni(NH)] and [Mn(HO)], [Mn(HO)] has the maximum number of unpaired electrons. Statement II : The number of pairs among {[NiCl], [Ni(CO)]}, {[NiCl], [Ni(CN)]} and {[Ni(CO)], [Ni(CN)]} that contain only diamagnetic species is two. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- B.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Mn high spin d has 5 unpaired (I true). [NiCl] is paramagnetic, so only the pair {Ni(CO), [Ni(CN)]} is fully diamagnetic (II false).
Question 62
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1In Carius method, 0.75 g of an organic compound gave 1.2 g of barium sulphate, find percentage of sulphur (molar mass 32 g mol). Molar mass of barium sulphate is 233 g mol.
- A.16.48%
- B.10.30%
- C.21.97%
- D.4.55%
Correct answer: C
Explanation: .
Question 63
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1From the following, the least stable structure is :

- A. (positive charge on terminal carbon, N=C double bond, both oxygens negative)
- B.
- C. (positive charge on the carbon adjacent to N)
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Structure (3) places like (positive) charges on adjacent atoms, the most destabilising arrangement.
Question 64
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify **correct** statements from the following : A. Propanal and propanone are functional isomers. B. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are metamers. C. But-2-ene shows optical isomerism. D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene are functional isomers. E. Pentane and 2, 2-dimethyl propane are chain isomers. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.A, B and C only
- B.B, C and D only
- C.A, B and E only
- D.C, D and E only
Correct answer: C
Question 65
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1A hydrocarbon 'P' (CH) on reaction with HCl gives an optically active compound 'Q' (CHCl) which on reaction with one mole of ammonia gives compound 'R' (CHN). 'R' on diazotization followed by hydrolysis gives 'S'. Identify P, Q, R and S.
- A.P = CH-CH-CH=CH, Q = CH-CH-CH-CHCl, R = CH-CH-CH-NH-CH, S = CH-CH-CH(OH)-CH
- B.P = CH-CH=CH-CH, Q = CH-CH-CH-CH-Cl, R = CH-CH-CH-CHNH, S = CH-CH-CH-CHOH
- C.P = CH-CH=CH-CH, Q = CH-CH-CH(Cl)-CH, R = CH-CH-CH(NH)-CH, S = CH-CH-CH(OH)-CH
- D.P = methylcyclopropane, Q = (chloromethyl)cyclopropane, R = (aminomethyl)cyclopropane, S = cyclopropanol
Correct answer: C
Question 66
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify A in the following reaction. A on treatment with 2H/Pt gives decalin (bicyclo[4.4.0]decane); A on treatment with KMnO/ gives cyclohexane-1,2-dicarboxylic acid + oxalic acid (HOOC-COOH).

- A.Fused bicyclic (decalin skeleton) with one C=C in each ring, each on the outer edge away from the ring fusion
- B.Fused bicyclic with the left ring saturated and a conjugated diene in the right ring (C5=C6 and C7=C8, neither involving the ring-fusion carbons)
- C.Fused bicyclic with one C=C in the left ring (adjacent to the fusion) and one C=C in the right ring (outer edge)
- D.Fused bicyclic with the right ring saturated and two C=C in the left ring, one of them adjacent to the ring fusion
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Oxidative cleavage of a C5=C6, C7=C8 diene leaves the saturated ring with COOH at the former C5 and C8 positions and releases C6-C7 as oxalic acid; hydrogenation (2 H) gives decalin.
Question 67
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1An organic compound \"P\" of molecular formula CHO gives positive Iodoform test but negative Tollen's test. When \"P\" is treated with dilute acid, it produces \"Q\". \"Q\" gives positive Tollen's test and also iodoform test. The structure of \"P\" is :
- A.CH-CO-CH(OCH)-CH(OCH)
- B.CH-CO-C(OCH)-CH
- C.CH-CO-CH-CH(OCH)
- D.H-CO-CH-CH-CH(OCH)
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The methyl ketone gives iodoform; the dimethyl acetal hides the aldehyde until acid hydrolysis gives CHCOCHCHO.
Question 68
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1An organic compound (P) on treatment with aqueous ammonia under hot condition forms compound (Q) which on heating with Br and KOH forms compound (R) having molecular formula CHN. Names of P, Q and R respectively are.
- A.Phenylethanoic acid, phenylethanamide, benzamine
- B.Benzoic acid, 4-methylbenzamide, 4-methylaniline
- C.Benzoic acid, benzamide, aniline
- D.Toluic acid, methylbenzamide, 2-methylaniline
Correct answer: C
Question 69
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify the **correct** statements. A. Arginine and Tryptophan are essential amino acids. B. Histidine does not contain heterocyclic ring in its structure. C. Proline is a six membered cyclic ring amino acid. D. Glycine does not have chiral centre. E. Cysteine has characteristic feature of side chain as MeS-CH-CH-. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.B and E Only
- B.A and D Only
- C.C and D Only
- D.C and E Only
Correct answer: B
Question 70
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following reactions. PbCl + KCrO A + 2KCl (Hot solution); A + NaOH B + NaCrO; PbSO + 4CHCOONH (NH)SO + X. In the above reactions, A, B and X are respectively.
- A.Na[Pb(OH)], PbCrO and (NH)[Pb(CHCOO)]
- B.Na[Pb(OH)], PbCrO and [Pb(NH)]SO
- C.PbCrO, Na[Pb(OH)] and [Pb(NH)]SO
- D.PbCrO, Na[Pb(OH)] and (NH)[Pb(CHCOO)]
Correct answer: D
Question 71
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following reaction sequence: Benzene --(conc. HNO + conc. HSO, 333 K)--> P --(1. Sn/HCl/; 2. pH neutralised)--> Q --((CHCO)O)--> R --(conc. HNO + conc. HSO)--> S (major product) --(1. HCl/EtOH, ; 2. pH neutralised)--> T. The percentage of nitrogen in product 'T' formed is ______%. (Nearest integer) (Given molar mass in g mol H : 1, C : 12, N : 14, O : 16)
Correct answer: 20
Explanation: T = 4-nitroaniline CHNO (M = 138): %N = 28/138 = 20.3, i.e. 20.
Question 72
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following reactions : NaCl + KCrO + HSO A + KHSO + NaHSO + HO; A + NaOH B + NaCl + HO; B + HSO + HO C + NaSO + HO. In the product 'C', 'X' is the number of O units, 'Y' is the total number oxygen atoms present and 'Z' is the oxidation state of Cr. The value of X+Y+Z is ______.
Correct answer: 13
Explanation: A = CrOCl, B = NaCrO, C = CrO: X = 2, Y = 5, Z = 6; total 13.
Question 73
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Use the following data : Substance, (500 K) / kJ mol, (500 K) / J K mol: AB(g): 32, 222; A(g): 6, 146; B(g): , 280. One mole each of A(g) and B(g) are taken in a 1 L closed flask and allowed to establish the equilibrium at 500 K. A(g) + B(g) 2AB(g). The value of (in kJ mol) is ______. (Nearest integer) (Given : log K = 2.2, R = 8.3 J K mol)
Correct answer: 70
Explanation: J/K; kJ; kJ .
Question 74
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The pH and conductance of a weak acid (HX) was found to be 5 and S, respectively. The conductance was measured under standard condition using a cell where the electrode plates having a surface area of 1 cm were at a distance of 15 cm apart. The value of the limiting molar conductivity is ______ S m mol. (nearest integer) (Given : degree of dissociation of the weak acid () << 1)
Correct answer: 6
Explanation: Under standard conditions c = 1 M, so . S/m; ; S m mol.
Question 75
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Pre-exponential factors of two different reactions of same order are identical. Let activation energy of first reaction exceeds the activation energy of second reaction by 20 kJ mol. If and are the rate constants of first and second reaction respectively at 300 K, then will be ______. (nearest integer) [R = 8.3 J K mol]
Correct answer: 8
Explanation: .