JEE Main 2026 — 23 Jan Shift 2 (3:00 PM - 6:00 PM) (Previous Year
JEE Main · 2026 · with answers and explanations
- questions
- 72
- Total marks
- 288
- Duration
- 180 minutes
- Negative marking
- −1
Subjects: Mathematics · Physics · Chemistry
Question 1
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let . Let R be a relation on A defined by if and only if is a multiple of 3. Given below are two statements: Statement I: . Statement II: R is an equivalence relation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- B.Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- C.Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- D.Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Classes {0,3,6,9}, {1,4,7}, {2,5,8}: pairs, so I is false; R is an equivalence relation.
Question 2
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Consider two sets and . Then the number of onto functions is equal to
- A.32
- B.62
- C.81
- D.79
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A = {-1, 0, 1, 5, 6, 7} (6 elements); B = {3, 4} (2 elements): .
Question 3
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The sum of all the real solutions of the equation is equal to
- A.1
- B.0
- C.2
- D.4
Correct answer: B
Question 4
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If , , then is equal to
- A.0
- B.256
- C.-1
- D.1
Correct answer: B
Explanation: ; .
Question 5
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The system of linear equations , , has
- A.infinitely many solutions for and
- B.infinitely many solutions for and
- C.unique solution for and
- D.unique solution for and
Correct answer: A
Question 6
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let . If and , then is equal to
- A.3
- B.5
- C.7
- D.12
Correct answer: B
Explanation: : , ; .
Question 7
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The number of ways, in which 16 oranges can be distributed to four children such that each child gets at least one orange, is
- A.403
- B.384
- C.429
- D.455
Correct answer: D
Explanation: .
Question 8
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Bag A contains 9 white and 8 black balls, while bag B contains 6 white and 4 black balls. One ball is randomly picked up from the bag B and mixed up with the balls in the bag A. Then a ball is randomly drawn from the bag A. If the probability, that the ball drawn is white, is , , then is equal to
- A.23
- B.22
- C.21
- D.24
Correct answer: A
Explanation: ; 23.
Question 9
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the mean and the variance of the data: Class 4$----$20 with Frequency 3, , 4, 7 are and 19 respectively, then the value of is
- A.21
- B.18
- C.19
- D.20
Correct answer: C
Question 10
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the points of intersection of the ellipses and lie on a circle of radius r and centre , then the value of is
- A.53
- B.51
- C.55
- D.52
Correct answer: C
Question 11
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1An equilateral triangle OAB is inscribed in the parabola with the vertex O at the vertex of the parabola. Then the minimum distance of the circle having AB as a diameter from the origin is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A, B ; circle centre (12,0), radius ; minimum distance .
Question 12
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let PQ be a chord of the hyperbola , perpendicular to the x-axis such that OPQ is an equilateral triangle, O being the centre of the hyperbola. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is , then the area of the triangle OPQ is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Explanation: ; P : ; area .
Question 13
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let A(1, 2) and C($-$3, $-$6) be two diagonally opposite vertices of a rhombus, whose sides AD and BC are parallel to the line . If B and D are the other two vertices, then is equal to
- A.6
- B.1
- C.9
- D.3
Correct answer: A
Explanation: B + D = A + C = (-2, -4), so the sum is 6.
Question 14
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and . Then the value of is equal to
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: C
Question 15
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let , , and . If and the length of the projection of on is p, then is equal to
- A.12
- B.4
- C.9
- D.6
Correct answer: A
Question 16
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let be three vectors such that . If , , , and the angle between and is , then is equal to
- A.4
- B.2
- C.0
- D.1
Correct answer: D
Question 17
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If is continuous at , then is equal to
- A.0
- B.1
- C.4
- D.2
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Near 0 the numerator is ; continuity needs , and then the limit is 0, so : .
Question 18
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The least value of is
- A.-1
- B.
- C.
- D.1
Correct answer: C
Explanation: , minimum .
Question 19
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and . If , where , , then is equal to
- A.29
- B.28
- C.30
- D.31
Correct answer: D
Question 20
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The area of the region enclosed between the circles and is:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Common chord ; lens area .
Question 21
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let and B be a matrix such that . Then the sum of the diagonal elements of is equal to ______
Correct answer: 3
Explanation: A is skew-symmetric, so is orthogonal: , trace 3.
Question 22
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1Let S denote the set of 4-digit numbers abcd such that and P denote the set of 5-digit numbers having product of its digits equal to 20. Then is equal to ______
Correct answer: 260
Explanation: . Digits {4,5,1,1,1}: 20; {2,2,5,1,1}: 30; total 50. Sum 260.
Question 23
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the image of the point P in the line is Q and the image of Q in the line is P, then is equal to ______.
Correct answer: 3
Question 24
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1The number of elements in the set is ______
Correct answer: 16
Explanation: The integral equals , so : , : 16.
Question 25
Mathematics · 4 marks · −1If the solution curve of the differential equation , , passes through the point , then the local maximum value of is ______
Correct answer: 16
Question 26
Physics · 4 marks · −1A paratrooper jumps from an aeroplane and opens a parachute after 2 s of free fall and starts deaccelerating with 3 m/s. At 10 m height from ground, while descending with the help of parachute, the speed of paratrooper is 5 m/s. The initial height of the airplane is ______ m. ( m/s)
- A.82.5
- B.92.5
- C.62.5
- D.20
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Free fall 20 m, speed 20 m/s; decelerating to 5 m/s: m; total m.
Question 27
Physics · 4 marks · −1A bead P sliding on a frictionless semi-circular string (ACB) and it is at point S at and at this instant the horizontal component of its velocity is . Another bead Q of the same mass as P is ejected from point A at along the horizontal string AB, with the speed , friction between the beads and the respective strings may be neglected in both cases. Let and be the respective times taken by beads P and Q to reach the point B, then the relation between and is

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: P gains speed as it descends, so its horizontal velocity component stays above through most of the path; it reaches B first.
Question 28
Physics · 4 marks · −1A body of mass 14 kg initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio 2 : 2 : 3. The two pieces of equal masses fly off perpendicular to each other with a speed of 18 m/s each. The velocity of the heavier fragment is ______ m/s.
- A.
- B.12
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Masses 4, 4, 6 kg: .
Question 29
Physics · 4 marks · −1A small metallic sphere of diameter 2 mm and density 10.5 g/cm is dropped in glycerine having viscosity 10 Poise and density 1.5 g/cm respectively. The terminal velocity attained by the sphere is ______ cm/s. ( and m/s)
- A.1.5
- B.2.0
- C.3.0
- D.1.0
Correct answer: B
Explanation: m/s = 2 cm/s.
Question 30
Physics · 4 marks · −1An air bubble of volume 2.9 cm rises from the bottom of a swimming pool of 5 m deep. At the bottom of the pool water temperature is C. The volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface, where the water temperature is C, is ______ cm. ( m/s, density of water kg/m, and 1 atm pressure is Pa)
- A.2.0
- B.3.0
- C.4.5
- D.4.2
Correct answer: C
Explanation: cm.
Question 31
Physics · 4 marks · −1One mole of an ideal diatomic gas expands from volume V to 2V isothermally at a temperature C and does W joule of work. If the gas undergoes same magnitude of expansion adiabatically from C doing the same amount of work W, then its final temperature will be (close to) ______ C. ()
- A.-56
- B.-30
- C.-189
- D.-117
Correct answer: A
Explanation: K; final K C.
Question 32
Physics · 4 marks · −1The internal energy of a monoatomic gas is 3nRT. One mole of helium is kept in a cylinder having internal cross section area of 17 cm and fitted with a light movable frictionless piston. The gas is heated slowly by suppling 126 J heat. If the temperature rises by C, then the piston will move ______ cm. (atmospheric pressure Pa)
- A.15.5
- B.1.55
- C.1.45
- D.14.5
Correct answer: A
Explanation: J; work J m = 15.5 cm.
Question 33
Physics · 4 marks · −1A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 mm is charged by a battery. On introducing a mica sheet of 2 mm and maintaining the connections of the plates with the terminals of the battery, it is found that it draws 25% more charge from the battery. The dielectric constant of mica is ______.
- A.2.0
- B.1.0
- C.1.5
- D.2.5
Correct answer: A
Explanation: .
Question 34
Physics · 4 marks · −1Suppose a long solenoid of 100 cm length, radius 2 cm having 500 turns per unit length, carries a current A, where rad/s. A circular conducting loop (B) of radius 1 cm coaxially slided through the solenoid at a speed cm/s. The r.m.s. current through the loop when the coil B is inserted 10 cm inside the solenoid is A. The value of is ______. [Resistance of the loop = 10 ]
- A.197
- B.100
- C.80
- D.280
Correct answer: A
Explanation: V; A.
Question 35
Physics · 4 marks · −1The current passing through a conducting loop in the form of equilateral triangle of side cm is 2 A. The magnetic field at its centroid is T. The value of is ______. (Given : SI units)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Distance to each side 2 cm; each side gives ; total T.
Question 36
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two shorts dipoles (A, B), A having charges C and length 1 cm and B having charges C and length 1 cm are placed with their centres 80 cm apart as shown in the figure. The electric field at a point P, equi-distant from the centres of both dipoles is ______ N/C.

- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: D
Explanation: A (axial, ): ; B (equatorial, ): ; perpendicular, resultant N/C.
Question 37
Physics · 4 marks · −1Two charges 7 C and C are placed at cm and cm respectively in an external field , where N/C.m. Considering the potential at infinity is 0, the electrostatic energy of the configuration is ______ J.
- A.24.3
- B.49.3
- C.-90.7
- D.1.4
Correct answer: B
Explanation: External potential V at m: J; mutual J; total 49.3 J.
Question 38
Physics · 4 marks · −1A circular loop of radius 7 cm is placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T directed perpendicular to plane of loop. The loop is converted into a square loop in 0.5 s. The EMF induced in the loop is ______ mV.
- A.13.2
- B.8.25
- C.6.6
- D.1.32
Correct answer: D
Explanation: Perimeter 44 cm; areas 154 and 121 cm; mV.
Question 39
Physics · 4 marks · −1The ratio of speeds of electromagnetic waves in vacuum and a medium, having dielectric constant and permeability of , is ( = permeability of vacuum)
- A.
- B.6:1
- C.36:1
- D.3:2
Correct answer: A
Question 40
Physics · 4 marks · −1When an unpolarized light falls at a particular angle on a glass plate (placed in air), it is observed that the reflected beam is linearly polarized. The angle of refracted beam with respect to the normal is ______. (, refractive indices of air and glass are 1.00 and 1.52, respectively.)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: .
Question 41
Physics · 4 marks · −1Which of the following pair of nuclei are isobars of the element?
- A.U and U
- B.H and H
- C.H and He
- D.Hg and Au
Correct answer: C
Question 42
Physics · 4 marks · −1For the given logic gate circuit, which of the following is the correct truth table ?

- A.n m z: 0 0 0; 0 1 1; 1 1 0; 1 0 1
- B.0 0 1; 0 1 1; 1 1 0; 1 0 0
- C.0 0 1; 0 1 0; 1 1 1; 1 0 0
- D.0 0 1; 0 1 0; 1 1 0; 1 0 0
Correct answer: B
Explanation: , so .
Question 43
Physics · 4 marks · −1Suppose there is a uniform circular disc of mass M kg and radius r m shown in figure. The shaded regions are cut out from the disc. The moment of inertia of the remainder about the axis A of the disc is given by . The value of is ______.

Correct answer: 109
Explanation: Each hole: mass , ; remainder , .
Question 44
Physics · 4 marks · −1A ball of radius r and density dropped through a viscous liquid of density and viscosity attains its terminal velocity at time t, given by , where A is a constant and a, b, c and d are integers. The value of is ______.
Correct answer: 1
Explanation: : ; .
Question 45
Physics · 4 marks · −1The velocity of sound in air is doubled when the temperature is raised from C to C. The value of is ______.
Correct answer: 819
Explanation: K, i.e. C.
Question 46
Physics · 4 marks · −1The size of the images of an object, formed by a thin lens are equal when the object is placed at two different positions 8 cm and 24 cm from the lens. The focal length of the lens is ______ cm.
Correct answer: 16
Explanation: cm.
Question 47
Physics · 4 marks · −1The average energy released per fission for the nucleus of U is 190 MeV. When all the atoms of 47 g pure U undergo fission process, the energy released is MeV. The value of is ______. (Avogadro Number per mole)
Correct answer: 228
Explanation: 0.2 mol MeV.
Question 48
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The work functions of two metals (M and M) are in the 1 : 2 ratio. When these metals are exposed to photons of energy 6 eV, the kinetic energy of liberated electrons of M : M is in the ratio of 2.642 : 1. The work functions (in eV) of M and M are respectively.
- A.2.3, 4.6
- B.3.1, 6.2
- C.1.4, 2.8
- D.1.5, 3.0
Correct answer: A
Explanation: eV.
Question 49
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify the INCORRECT statements from the following: A. Notation Mg represents 24 protons and 12 neutrons. B. Wavelength of a radiation of frequency s is m. C. One radiation has wavelength = (900 nm) and energy = E. Other radiation has wavelength = (300 nm) and energy = E. E : E = 3 : 1. D. Number of photons of light of wavelength 2000 pm that provides 1 J of energy is . Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.A and D Only
- B.A and C Only
- C.A and B Only
- D.B and C Only
Correct answer: B
Question 50
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Which statements are NOT TRUE about XeOF? A. It has a see-saw shape. B. Xe has 5 electron pairs in its valence shell in XeOF. C. The OXeO bond angle is close to . D. The FXeF bond angle is close to . E. Xe has 16 valence electrons in XeOF. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.B and D Only
- B.B, C and E Only
- C.A and D Only
- D.B, D and E Only
Correct answer: B
Question 51
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1It is noticed that Pb is more stable than Pb but Sn is less stable than Sn. Observe the following reactions. PbO + Pb 2PbO; . SnO + Sn 2SnO; . Identify the correct set from the following
- A.;
- B.;
- C.;
- D.;
Correct answer: B
Question 52
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the electrochemical cell shown: two identical metal electrodes M dip into MX solutions separated by a semi permeable membrane; the left compartment has M at concentration and the right compartment M at concentration . A metal electrode (M) is undergoing redox reaction by forming M (M M + e). The cation M is present in two different concentrations and as shown above. Which of the following statement is correct for generating a positive cell potential?

- A.If is present at anode, then .
- B.If is present at cathode, then .
- C.If is present at anode, then .
- D.If is present at cathode, then .
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A concentration cell has when the cathode compartment is the more concentrated one.
Question 53
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given above is the concentration vs time plot for a dissociation reaction : A nB. Based on the data of the initial phase of the reaction (initial 10 min), the value of n is ______.

- A.4
- B.5
- C.2
- D.3
Correct answer: D
Explanation: In the first 10 min M while M, so n = 3.
Question 54
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Observe the following reactions at T(K). I. A products. II. 5Br(aq) + BrO(aq) + 6H(aq) 3Br(aq) + 3HO(). Both the reactions are started at 10.00 am. The rates of these reactions at 10.10 am are same. The value of at 10.10 am is mol L min. The concentration of A at 10.10 am is mol L. What is the first order rate constant (in min) of reaction I?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Rate of II ; min.
Question 55
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements: Statement I: The second ionisation enthalpy of Na is larger than the corresponding ionisation enthalpy of Mg. Statement II: The ionic radius of O is larger than that of F. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- B.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- C.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct answer: C
Question 56
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Elements X and Y belong to Group 15. The difference between the electronegativity values of 'X' and phosphorus is higher than that of the difference between phosphorus and 'Y'. 'X' & 'Y' are respectively
- A.As & Bi
- B.Bi & N
- C.As & Sb
- D.N & As
Correct answer: D
Question 57
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed in the reaction between KI and acidified KCrO solution is:
- A.+3
- B.+6
- C.+2
- D.+4
Correct answer: A
Question 58
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Identify the CORRECT set of details from the following: A. [Co(NH)] : Inner orbital complex; dsp hybridized B. [MnCl] : Outer orbital complex; spd hybridized C. [CoF] : Outer orbital complex; dsp hybridized D. [FeF] : Outer orbital complex; spd hybridized E. [Ni(CN)] : Inner orbital complex; sp hybridized. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.A, B, C, D & E
- B.C & D Only
- C.A, B & D Only
- D.A, C & E Only
Correct answer: C
Question 59
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1In Carius method 0.2425 g of an organic compound gave 0.5253 g silver chloride. The percentage of chlorine in the organic compound is
- A.37.57%
- B.34.79%
- C.53.58%
- D.87.65%
Correct answer: C
Explanation: .
Question 60
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements: Statement I: is more stable than as nine hyperconjugation interactions are possible in . Statement II: is less stable than as only three hyperconjugation interactions are possible in . In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- B.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- C.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- D.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct answer: D
Explanation: CH has no CH bond beta to the cationic centre, so no hyperconjugation: II is false.
Question 61
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1A vicinal dibromide on a substituted cyclopentane (shown in figure) is treated with (i) Zn, (ii) HBr to give the major product (P). Identify (P)

- A.Tertiary bromide: Br on the substituted ring carbon (see figure)
- B.Br on the side chain carbon next to the ring (see figure)
- C.Br on a secondary ring carbon (see figure)
- D.Br on the ring carbon between the two alkyl groups (see figure)
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Zn debromination regenerates the alkene; Markovnikov addition of HBr places Br on the more substituted (tertiary) carbon.
Question 62
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Which of the following statements are TRUE about Haloform reaction?: A. Sodium hypochlorite reacts with KI to give KOI. B. KOI is a reducing agent. C. -unsaturated methylketone (CHCH=CHCOCH) will give iodoform reaction. D. Isopropyl alcohol will not give iodoform test. E. Methanoic acid will give positive iodoform test. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.A, B & C Only
- B.B, D & E Only
- C.A & C Only
- D.A, C & E Only
Correct answer: C
Question 63
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1A mixed ether (P), when heated with excess of hot concentrated hydrogen iodide produces two different alkyl iodides which when treated with aq. NaOH give compounds (Q) and (R). Both (Q) and (R) give yellow precipitate with NaOI. Identify the mixed ether (P):
- A.CHCHOC(CH)CHCH
- B.CHCHOCH(CH)CH(CH) (ethyl 3-methylbutan-2-yl ether)
- C.CHCHOCH(Ph)CH(CH)
- D.PhCHOCH(CH)
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Ethanol and 3-methylbutan-2-ol both give the iodoform test.
Question 64
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Given below are two statements: Statement I: benzene-1,2-diamine can be synthesized from 1,2-dipropylbenzene (CH(CHCHCH), ortho) using simpler reagents in the order i) Acidic KMnO, ii) Ammonia, iii) Bromine and alkali. Statement II: 4-methylaniline (-toluidine) can be converted into 3,5-dibromotoluene using reagents in the order i) Bromine-HO ii) NaNO/HCl (0 - 5 C) (iii) Aq. HPO. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
- B.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- D.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct answer: D
Question 65
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1A student has been given a compound \"x\" of molecular formula- CHN. 'x' is sparingly soluble in water. However, on addition of dilute mineral acid, 'x' becomes soluble in water. 'x' when treated with CHCl and KOH(alc), 'y' is produced. 'y' has a specific unpleasant smell. On treatment with benzenesulphonyl chloride, 'x' gives a compound 'z' which is soluble in alkali. The number of different \"H\" atoms present in 'z' is:-
- A.5
- B.4
- C.8
- D.7
Correct answer: D
Explanation: z = CHSONHCH: 3 + 3 aromatic kinds + NH = 7.
Question 66
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Both human DNA and RNA are chiral molecules. The chirality in DNA and RNA arises due to the presence of
- A.Base unit
- B.Chiral phosphate unit
- C.Lsugar component
- D.Dsugar component
Correct answer: D
Question 67
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Iodoform test can differentiate between A. Methanol and Ethanol B. CHCOOH and CHCHCOOH C. Cyclohexene and cyclohexanone D. Diethyl ether and Pentan-3-one E. Anisole and acetone. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.B, C & E Only
- B.A, B & E Only
- C.A & E Only
- D.A & D Only
Correct answer: C
Question 68
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Total number of unpaired electrons present in the central metal atoms/ions of [Ni(CO)], [NiCl], [PtCl(NH)], [Ni(CN)] and [Pt(CN)] is ______.
Correct answer: 2
Explanation: Only [NiCl] (2 unpaired): total 2.
Question 69
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Consider the following reaction of benzene: Benzene + HCCOCHCHCOCl (P) (Q). In compound (Q), the percentage of oxygen is ______%. (Nearest integer)
Correct answer: 10
Explanation: P = PhCOCHCHCOCH; intramolecular aldol condensation gives 3-phenylcyclopent-2-en-1-one CHO (158): %O = 10.
Question 70
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1200 cc of M potassium dichromate is required to oxidise 750 cc of 0.6 M Mohr's salt solution in acidic medium. Here = ______.
Correct answer: 375
Explanation: .
Question 71
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1X(g) + Y(g) 2Z(g). X(g) and Y(g) are added to a 1 L flask and it is found that the system attains the above equilibrium at T(K) with the number of moles of X(g), Y(g) and Z(g) being 3, 3 and 9 mol respectively (equilibrium moles). Under this condition of equilibrium, 10 mol of Z(g) is added to the flask and the temperature is maintained at T(K). Then the number of moles of Z(g) in the flask when the new equilibrium is established is ______. (Nearest integer)
Correct answer: 15
Explanation: ; ; Z = 15 mol.
Question 72
Chemistry · 4 marks · −1Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 320 K, the vapour pressure of the solution, containing 3 mol of A and 1 mol of B is 500 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of A is further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of B in pure state is ______. (Nearest integer)
Correct answer: 200
Explanation: , , .