JEE Main 2026 — 5 Apr Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

JEE Main · 2026 · with answers and explanations

questions
73
Total marks
292
Duration
180 minutes
Negative marking
−1

Subjects: Mathematics · Physics · Chemistry

Question 1

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a,b∈Ca,b\in\mathbb{C}. Let α,β\alpha,\beta be the roots of the equation x2+ax+b=0x^2+ax+b=0. If β−α=11\beta-\alpha=\sqrt{11} and β2−α2=3i11\beta^2-\alpha^2=3i\sqrt{11}, then (β3−α3)2(\beta^3-\alpha^3)^2 is equal to:

  1. A.160
  2. B.176
  3. C.194
  4. D.187

Correct answer: B

Question 2

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let the sum of the first nn terms of an A.P. be 3n2+5n3n^2+5n. Then the sum of squares of the first 10 terms of the A.P. is:

  1. A.10220
  2. B.12860
  3. C.15220
  4. D.19780

Correct answer: C

Question 3

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let A be a 3×33\times3 matrix such that AT[101]=[522]A^T\begin{bmatrix}1\\0\\1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}5\\2\\2\end{bmatrix}, AT[001]=[311]A^T\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}3\\1\\1\end{bmatrix}, A[101]=[344]A\begin{bmatrix}1\\0\\1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}3\\4\\4\end{bmatrix} and A[001]=[131]A\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1\\3\\1\end{bmatrix}. If det⁡(A)=1\det(A)=1, then det⁡(adj⁡(A2+A))\det(\operatorname{adj}(A^2+A)) is equal to:

  1. A.16
  2. B.25
  3. C.49
  4. D.64

Correct answer: D

Question 4

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Consider the system of linear equations in x,y,zx,y,z: x+2y+tz=0x+2y+tz=0, 6x+y+5tz=06x+y+5tz=0, 3x+t2y+f(t)z=03x+t^2y+f(t)z=0, where f:R→Rf:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R} is a differentiable function. If this system has infinitely many solutions for all t∈Rt\in\mathbb{R}, then ff

  1. A.is a constant function
  2. B.is strictly increasing on R\mathbb{R}
  3. C.is strictly decreasing on R\mathbb{R}
  4. D.has two critical points

Correct answer: B

Question 5

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

∑n=110(528n(n+1)(n+2))\sum_{n=1}^{10}\left(\frac{528}{n(n+1)(n+2)}\right) is equal to:

  1. A.65
  2. B.130
  3. C.220
  4. D.440

Correct answer: B

Question 6

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let tan⁡A\tan A, tan⁡B\tan B, where A,B∈(−π2,π2)A,B\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right), be the roots of the quadratic equation x2−2x−5=0x^2-2x-5=0. Then 20sin⁡2(A+B2)20\sin^2\left(\frac{A+B}{2}\right) is equal to:

  1. A.10+1010+\sqrt{10}
  2. B.10−21010-2\sqrt{10}
  3. C.10−31010-3\sqrt{10}
  4. D.10−1010-\sqrt{10}

Correct answer: C

Question 7

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

A letter is known to have arrived by post either from KANPUR or from ANANTPUR. On the envelope just two consecutive letters AN are visible. The probability, that the letter came from ANANTPUR, is:

  1. A.710\frac{7}{10}
  2. B.1017\frac{10}{17}
  3. C.1219\frac{12}{19}
  4. D.719\frac{7}{19}

Correct answer: B

Question 8

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The mean deviation about the mean for the data (xix_i : fif_i) 5 : 8, 7 : 6, 9 : 2, 10 : 2, 12 : 2, 15 : 6 is equal to:

  1. A.4013\frac{40}{13}
  2. B.4213\frac{42}{13}
  3. C.4413\frac{44}{13}
  4. D.4613\frac{46}{13}

Correct answer: C

Question 9

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a focus of the ellipse E:x2a2+y2b2=1E : \frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1 be S(4,0)S(4,0) and its eccentricity be 45\frac45. If the point P(3,α)P(3,\alpha) lies on E and O is the origin, then the area of △POS\triangle POS is equal to:

  1. A.12/5
  2. B.14/5
  3. C.24/5
  4. D.48/5

Correct answer: C

Question 10

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let P be a moving point on the circle x2+y2−6x−8y+21=0x^2+y^2-6x-8y+21=0. Then, the maximum distance of P from the vertex of the parabola x2+6x+y+13=0x^2+6x+y+13=0 is equal to:

  1. A.8
  2. B.10
  3. C.12
  4. D.9

Correct answer: C

Question 11

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

In an equilateral triangle PQR, let the vertex P be at (3,5)(3,5) and the side QR be along the line x+y=4x+y=4. If the orthocentre of the triangle PQR is (α,β)(\alpha,\beta), then 9(α+β)9(\alpha+\beta) is equal to:

  1. A.16
  2. B.27
  3. C.36
  4. D.48

Correct answer: D

Question 12

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The sum of all the integral values of pp such that the equation 3sin⁡2x+12cos⁡x−3=p3\sin^2x+12\cos x-3=p, x∈Rx\in\mathbb{R}, has at least one solution, is:

  1. A.−54-54
  2. B.−60-60
  3. C.−75-75
  4. D.−84-84

Correct answer: C

Question 13

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The square of the distance of the point P(5,6,7)P(5,6,7) from the line x−22=y−53=z−24\frac{x-2}{2}=\frac{y-5}{3}=\frac{z-2}{4} is equal to:

  1. A.3
  2. B.5
  3. C.6
  4. D.8

Correct answer: C

Question 14

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let a⃗=7i^+j^−k^\vec a=\sqrt7\hat i+\hat j-\hat k and b⃗=j^+2k^\vec b=\hat j+2\hat k. If r⃗\vec r is a vector such that r⃗×a⃗+a⃗×b⃗=0⃗\vec r\times\vec a+\vec a\times\vec b=\vec0 and r⃗⋅a⃗=0\vec r\cdot\vec a=0, then ∣3r⃗∣2|3\vec r|^2 is equal to:

  1. A.44
  2. B.54
  3. C.86
  4. D.132

Correct answer: A

Question 15

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The square of the distance of the point of intersection of the lines r⃗=(i^+j^−k^)+λ(ai^−j^)\vec r=\left(\hat i+\hat j-\hat k\right)+\lambda\left(a\hat i-\hat j\right), a≠0a\ne0 and r⃗=(4i^−k^)+μ(2i^+ak^)\vec r=\left(4\hat i-\hat k\right)+\mu\left(2\hat i+a\hat k\right) from the origin is:

  1. A.5
  2. B.10
  3. C.17
  4. D.26

Correct answer: C

Question 16

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The area of the region R={(x,y):xy≤27,1≤y≤x2}R=\{(x,y) : xy\le27, 1\le y\le x^2\} is equal to:

  1. A.78log⁡e3−52378\log_e3-\frac{52}{3}
  2. B.54log⁡e3−52354\log_e3-\frac{52}{3}
  3. C.54log⁡e3−26354\log_e3-\frac{26}{3}
  4. D.54log⁡e3+26354\log_e3+\frac{26}{3}

Correct answer: B

Question 17

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The product of all possible values of α\alpha, for which lim⁡x→0(1−cos⁡(αx)cos⁡((α+1)x)cos⁡((α+2)x)sin⁡2((α+1)x))=2\lim_{x\to0}\left(\frac{1-\cos(\alpha x)\cos((\alpha+1)x)\cos((\alpha+2)x)}{\sin^2((\alpha+1)x)}\right)=2, is:

  1. A.−2-2
  2. B.1
  3. C.−1-1
  4. D.54\frac54

Correct answer: C

Question 18

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The value of the integral ∫0∞log⁡e(x)x2+4dx\int_0^\infty\frac{\log_e(x)}{x^2+4}dx is:

  1. A.πlog⁡e(2)2\frac{\pi\log_e(2)}{2}
  2. B.πlog⁡e(2)4\frac{\pi\log_e(2)}{4}
  3. C.1+πlog⁡e(2)1+\pi\log_e(2)
  4. D.2+πlog⁡e(2)2+\pi\log_e(2)

Correct answer: B

Question 19

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let f:R→Rf:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R} be a differentiable function such that f(x+y3)=f(x)+f(y)3f\left(\frac{x+y}{3}\right)=\frac{f(x)+f(y)}{3} for all x,y∈Rx,y\in\mathbb{R}, and f′(0)=3f'(0)=3. Then the minimum value of the function g(x)=3+exf(x)g(x)=3+e^xf(x), is:

  1. A.3(e+1e)3\left(\frac{e+1}{e}\right)
  2. B.3(e−1e)3\left(\frac{e-1}{e}\right)
  3. C.3−ee\frac{3-e}{e}
  4. D.3e3e

Correct answer: B

Question 20

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

The value of the integral ∫π/6π/3(4−cosec⁡2xcos⁡4x)dx\int_{\pi/6}^{\pi/3}\left(\frac{4-\operatorname{cosec}^2x}{\cos^4x}\right)dx is:

  1. A.113\frac{11}{\sqrt3}
  2. B.163\frac{16}{\sqrt3}
  3. C.3233\frac{32}{3\sqrt3}
  4. D.6433\frac{64}{3\sqrt3}

Correct answer: C

Question 21

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6}A=\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}. The number of one-one functions f:A→Af:A\to A such that f(1)≥3f(1)\ge3, f(3)≤4f(3)\le4 and f(2)+f(3)=5f(2)+f(3)=5, is ______.

Correct answer: 72

Question 22

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

Two players A and B play a series of games of badminton. The player, who wins 5 games first, wins the series. Assuming that no game ends in a draw, the number of ways, in which player A wins the series is ______.

Correct answer: 126

Question 23

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If the sum of the coefficients of x7x^7 and x14x^{14} in the expansion of (1x3−x4)n\left(\frac{1}{x^3}-x^4\right)^n, x≠0x\ne0, is zero, then the value of nn is ______.

Correct answer: 21

Question 24

Mathematics · 4 marks · −1

If π4+∑p=111tan⁡−1(2p−11+22p−1)=α\frac{\pi}{4}+\sum_{p=1}^{11}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2^{p-1}}{1+2^{2p-1}}\right)=\alpha, then tan⁡α\tan\alpha is equal to ______.

Correct answer: 2048

Question 25

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In a Vernier calipers, when both jaws touch each other, zero of the Vernier scale is shifted to the right of zero of the main scale and 7th7^{th} Vernier division coincides with a main scale reading. If the value of 1 main scale division is 1 mm and there are 10 Vernier scale divisions, then the Vernier caliper has

  1. A.0.07 cm negative zero error
  2. B.0.7 cm negative zero error
  3. C.0.07 cm positive zero error
  4. D.0.7 cm positive zero error

Correct answer: C

Question 26

Physics · 4 marks · −1

L, C and R represents physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively. The dimensional formula ML2T−4A−2ML^2T^{-4}A^{-2} corresponds to ______.

  1. A.RLC\frac{R}{\sqrt{LC}}
  2. B.RLC\frac{R}{LC}
  3. C.CLR\frac{C}{\sqrt{LR}}
  4. D.1RLC\frac1R\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}

Correct answer: A

Question 27

Physics · 4 marks · −1

When one moves from a point 16 km below the earth's surface to a point 16 km above the earth's surface. The change in g is approximately α\alpha %. The value of α\alpha is ______. (Take radius of the earth = 6400 km.)

  1. A.0.12
  2. B.0.25
  3. C.0.50
  4. D.0.75

Correct answer: B

Question 28

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Three masses m1=4m_1=4 kg, m2=4m_2=4 kg and m3=6m_3=6 kg are suspended from a fixed smooth frictionless pully as shown in the figure below. The value of T1/T2T_1/T_2 is ______ (take g=10 m/s2g=10\ \mathrm{m/s^2})

Figure for question 28
  1. A.5/3
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.3/5
  4. D.2/5

Correct answer: A

Question 29

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A wedge Y with mass of 10 kg and all frictionless surfaces and the inclined surface making 37° with horizontal. A block X with mass 2 kg is placed at the highest point of the wedge as shown in figure is at rest. At t=0t=0 wedge (Y) is pulled toward right with constant force (ff) of 24 N. Taking the block X at rest at t=0t=0, the time taken by it to slide down 8.8 m on the slope, while Y is on the move, is ______ s. (take tan⁡(37∘)=3/4\tan(37^\circ)=3/4 and g=10 m/s2g=10\ \mathrm{m/s^2})

Figure for question 29
  1. A.2
  2. B.4
  3. C.2\sqrt2
  4. D.222\sqrt2

Correct answer: A

Question 30

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The Young's modulus of steel wire of radius rr and length LL is Y. If the radius rr and length LL of the wire are doubled then the value of Y

  1. A.increases by two times
  2. B.reduces by half
  3. C.remains unchanged
  4. D.becomes one fourth

Correct answer: C

Question 31

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Statement I: Change in internal energy of a system containing nn mole of ideal gas can be written as ΔU=nCv(Tf−Ti)=nRγ−1(Tf−Ti)\Delta U=nC_v(T_f-T_i)=\frac{nR}{\gamma-1}(T_f-T_i), where γ=CpCv\gamma=\frac{C_p}{C_v}, TiT_i = initial temperature, TfT_f = final temperature. Statement II: Relation between degree of freedom ff and γ\gamma (=Cp/Cv)(=C_p/C_v) is (γ=1+2f)\left(\gamma=1+\frac2f\right). Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. B.Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. C.A is true but R is false
  4. D.A is false but R is true

Correct answer: B

Question 32

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Consider the following statements: A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics gives concept of temperature B. First law of thermodynamics gives concept of internal energy C. In isothermal expansion of ideal gas, ΔQ≠ΔW\Delta Q\ne\Delta W D. Product of intensive and extensive variables is extensive E. The ratio of any extensive variable to mass will be an extensive variable. Choose the correct combination of statements from the options given below:

  1. A.C, D and E Only
  2. B.A, B and C Only
  3. C.A, B and D Only
  4. D.B, C and D Only

Correct answer: C

Question 33

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Refer to the figure given below. The values of I1I_1, I2I_2 and I3I_3 are ______.

Figure for question 33
  1. A.I1=2.5I_1=2.5 A, I2=1.875I_2=1.875 A, I3=1.875I_3=1.875 A
  2. B.I1=1.875I_1=1.875 A, I2=2.5I_2=2.5 A, I3=1.875I_3=1.875 A
  3. C.I1=1.875I_1=1.875 A, I2=1.875I_2=1.875 A, I3=2.5I_3=2.5 A
  4. D.I1=2.5I_1=2.5 A, I2=2.5I_2=2.5 A, I3=1.875I_3=1.875 A

Correct answer: A

Question 34

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An electron of mass mm is moving in an electric field E⃗=−2E0i^\vec E=-2E_0\hat i (E0E_0 = constant > 0), with an initial velocity V⃗=v0i^\vec V=v_0\hat i (v0v_0 = constant > 0). If λ0=h4mv0\lambda_0=\frac{h}{4mv_0}, its de Broglie wavelength at time tt is ______. (ee = charge of electron)

  1. A.4λ0[1−E0et2mv0]\frac{4\lambda_0}{\left[1-\frac{E_0et}{2mv_0}\right]}
  2. B.4λ0[1+E0et2mv0]\frac{4\lambda_0}{\left[1+\frac{E_0et}{2mv_0}\right]}
  3. C.4λ0[1+2E0etmv0]\frac{4\lambda_0}{\left[1+\frac{2E_0et}{mv_0}\right]}
  4. D.4λ0[1−2E0etmv0]\frac{4\lambda_0}{\left[1-\frac{2E_0et}{mv_0}\right]}

Correct answer: C

Question 35

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In the hydrogen atom, the electron makes a transition from the higher orbit (ii) to a lower orbit (ff). The ratio of the radius of the orbits in given by ri:rf=16:4r_i:r_f=16:4. The wavelength of photon emitted due to this transition is ______ nm. (Given Rydberg constant = 1.0973×1071.0973\times10^7 /m)

  1. A.121
  2. B.242
  3. C.486
  4. D.974

Correct answer: C

Question 36

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A displacement current of 4.0 A can be set up in the space between two parallel plates of 6 μ\muF capacitor. The rate of change of potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is nearly α×106\alpha\times10^6 V/s. The value of α\alpha is ______.

  1. A.0.58
  2. B.0.67
  3. C.0.82
  4. D.0.75

Correct answer: B

Question 37

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Refer to the figure given below, current between terminals A and B is ______ A.

Figure for question 37
  1. A.12.5
  2. B.1.25
  3. C.7.5
  4. D.5

Correct answer: B

Question 38

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width of the interference pattern produced on the screen is 2.4 μ\mum. If the experiment is carried out in another medium having refractive index 1.2, the fringe width will be ______ μ\mum.

  1. A.1.2
  2. B.2
  3. C.2.4
  4. D.2.88

Correct answer: B

Question 39

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A ray of light passing through an equilateral prism is having velocity 2.12×1082.12\times10^8 m/s in the prism material, then the minimum angle of deviation is ______ degrees.

  1. A.45
  2. B.30
  3. C.28
  4. D.58

Correct answer: B

Question 40

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Light source having wavelength 331 nm is used to generate photo-electrons whose stopping potential is 0.2 V. The work function of the used metal in the experiment is α×10−19\alpha\times10^{-19} J. The value of α\alpha is ______. (h=6.62×10−34h=6.62\times10^{-34} J s, e=1.6×10−19e=1.6\times10^{-19} C and c=3×108c=3\times10^8 m/s)

  1. A.3.68
  2. B.4.68
  3. C.5.68
  4. D.2.68

Correct answer: C

Question 41

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A compound microscope is designed with two symmetric biconvex lenses. The objective lens is cut vertically, creating two identical plano-convex lenses. One of them is used in place of original objective lens. To retain same magnification keeping the object distance unchanged, the tube length has to be

  1. A.increased two times
  2. B.increased 32\frac32 times
  3. C.decreased two times
  4. D.decreased 32\frac32 times

Correct answer: A

Question 42

Physics · 4 marks · −1

Two wires as shown in the figure below, made of steel and have breaking stress of 12×108 N/m212\times10^8\ \mathrm{N/m^2}. Area of cross-section of upper wire is 0.008 cm2\mathrm{cm^2} and of lower wire is 0.004 cm2\mathrm{cm^2}. The maximum mass that can be added to pan without breaking any wire is ______ kg. (take g=10 m/s2g=10\ \mathrm{m/s^2})

Figure for question 42
  1. A.56
  2. B.38
  3. C.96
  4. D.5.6

Correct answer: B

Question 43

Physics · 4 marks · −1

An a.c. source of angular frequency ω\omega is connected across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current is observed as I. Now the frequency of the source is changed to ω/4\omega/4, (keeping the voltage unchanged) the current is found to be I/3. The ratio of resistance to reactance at frequency ω\omega is

  1. A.67\sqrt{\frac67}
  2. B.35\sqrt{\frac35}
  3. C.78\sqrt{\frac78}
  4. D.34\sqrt{\frac34}

Correct answer: C

Question 44

Physics · 4 marks · −1

For the given logic circuit, which of the following inputs combination will make both LED$-1andLED1 and LED-$2 to glow?

Figure for question 44
  1. A.A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
  2. B.A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
  3. C.A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
  4. D.A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

Correct answer: C

Question 45

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A cube has side length 5 cm and modulus of rigidity 105 N/m210^5\ \mathrm{N/m^2}. The displacement produced by a force of 10 N in the upper face of cube is ______ mm.

Correct answer: 2

Question 46

Physics · 4 marks · −1

From 18 m height above the ground a ball is dropped from rest. The height above the ground at which the magnitude of velocity equal to the magnitude of acceleration (in the same set of units) due to gravity is ______ m. (Take g=10 m/s2g=10\ \mathrm{m/s^2} and neglect the air resistance)

Correct answer: 13

Question 47

Physics · 4 marks · −1

A transverse wave on a string is described by y=3sin⁡(36t+0.018x+π/4)y=3\sin(36t+0.018x+\pi/4), where xx, yy are in cm and tt in seconds. The least distance between the two successive crests in the wave is ______ cm. (Nearest integer) (π=3.14\pi=3.14)

Correct answer: 349

Question 48

Physics · 4 marks · −1

The charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field of (3i^+2j^)\left(3\hat i+2\hat j\right) T has an acceleration (4i^−x2j^) m/s2\left(4\hat i-\frac{x}{2}\hat j\right)\ \mathrm{m/s^2}. The value of xx is ______.

Correct answer: 12

Question 49

Physics · 4 marks · −1

In the given circuit below inductance values of L1L_1, L2L_2 and L3L_3 are same. The magnetic energy stored in the entire circuit is (UtU_t) and that stored in the L2L_2 inductor is (UlU_l). Ut/UlU_t/U_l is ______. (Ignore the mutual inductance if any)

Figure for question 49

Correct answer: 6

Question 50

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

How many grams of residue is obtained by heating 2.76 g of silver carbonate? (Given : Molar mass of C, O and Ag are 12, 16 and 108 g mol−1\mathrm{mol^{-1}} respectively)

  1. A.1.08 g
  2. B.2.16 g
  3. C.3.24 g
  4. D.4.32 g

Correct answer: B

Question 51

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Arrange the following atomic orbitals of multi electron atoms in order of increasing energy. A. n=3,l=2,m=+1n=3, l=2, m=+1 B. n=4,l=0,m=0n=4, l=0, m=0 C. n=6,l=1,m=0n=6, l=1, m=0 D. n=5,l=1,m=+1n=5, l=1, m=+1 E. n=2,l=1,m=+1n=2, l=1, m=+1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.C < D < B < A < E
  2. B.B < A < E < C < D
  3. C.E < C < D < B < A
  4. D.E < B < A < D < C

Correct answer: D

Question 52

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Identify the correct statements from the following : A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle is applicable to electrons. B. The size of 2px2p_x orbital is less than the size of 3px3p_x orbital. C. The energy of 2s orbital of H atom is equal to the energy of 2s orbital of Li. D. The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5 4s13d^5\,4s^1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A, B and C Only
  2. B.A, B and D Only
  3. C.B, C and D Only
  4. D.A, C and D Only

Correct answer: B

Question 53

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

What is the mole fraction of water in 10% by weight (w/w) of aqueous urea solution? [Given: Molar mass of H, O, C and N are 1, 16, 12 and 14 g mol−1\mathrm{mol^{-1}} respectively.]

  1. A.0.825
  2. B.0.032
  3. C.0.867
  4. D.0.967

Correct answer: D

Question 54

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

M3A2\mathrm{M_3A_2} is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass yy g mol−1\mathrm{mol^{-1}} and solubility xx g L−1\mathrm{L^{-1}}. The ratio of the molar concentration of the anion (A3−\mathrm{A^{3-}}) to the solubility product of the salt is

  1. A.154⋅y4x4\frac{1}{54}\cdot\frac{y^4}{x^4}
  2. B.y5108x4\frac{y^5}{108x^4}
  3. C.108⋅x5y5108\cdot\frac{x^5}{y^5}
  4. D.1108y4x4\frac{1}{108}\frac{y^4}{x^4}

Correct answer: A

Question 55

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Arrange the following resultant mixtures in increasing order of their pH values A. 10 mL 0.2 M Ca(OH)2\mathrm{Ca(OH)_2} + 25 mL 0.1 M HCl B. 10 mL 0.01 M H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4} + 10 mL 0.01 M Ca(OH)2\mathrm{Ca(OH)_2} C. 10 mL 0.1 M H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4} + 10 mL 0.1 M KOH. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.B < C < A
  2. B.C < A < B
  3. C.C < B < A
  4. D.A < C < B

Correct answer: C

Question 56

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

First order gas phase reaction A →\rightarrow B + C. pip_i = initial pressure of gas A, ptp_t = total pressure of the reaction mixture at time tt. Expression of rate constant (k) is

  1. A.1tln⁡pi2pi−pt\frac1t\ln\frac{p_i}{2p_i-p_t}
  2. B.1tln⁡2pipi−pt\frac1t\ln\frac{2p_i}{p_i-p_t}
  3. C.1tln⁡pi3pi−2pt\frac1t\ln\frac{p_i}{3p_i-2p_t}
  4. D.1tln⁡3pi4pi−pt\frac1t\ln\frac{3p_i}{4p_i-p_t}

Correct answer: A

Question 57

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The correct order of electronegativity of fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen is F > O > N. Statement II: The oxidation state of oxygen in OF2\mathrm{OF_2} is +2 and in Na2O\mathrm{Na_2O} is −2-2. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct answer: A

Question 58

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Correct statements from the following are: A. Nitrogen in oxidation states from +1 to +4 disproportionates in acid medium. B. Nitrogen has the ability to form dπd\pi-pπp\pi multiple bonds with itself and other elements with small size and high electronegativity. C. N-N single bond is stronger than P-P single bond. D. Nitrogen has highest density in its group due to small size. E. The maximum covalency of nitrogen is four since it has only four valence orbitals for bonding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.B, C and D Only
  2. B.C, D and E Only
  3. C.A, C and E Only
  4. D.A and E Only

Correct answer: D

Question 59

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Which of the following is NOT a physical or chemical characteristics of interstitial compounds?

  1. A.They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
  2. B.They are very soft and ionic in nature.
  3. C.They retain metallic conductivity.
  4. D.They are chemically inert and usually non-stoichiometric.

Correct answer: B

Question 60

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The correct statements about metal carbonyls are A. The metal-carbon bonds in metal carbonyls possess both σ\sigma and π\pi-character. B. Due to synergic bonding interactions between metal and CO ligand, the metal-carbon bond becomes weak. C. The metal-carbon σ\sigma bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a vacant orbital of metal. D. The metal-carbon π\pi bond is formed by the donation of electrons from filled d-orbital of metal into vacant π∗\pi^* orbital of CO. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A and B Only
  2. B.A, C and D Only
  3. C.B and C Only
  4. D.A and D Only

Correct answer: B

Question 61

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Each electron in ege_g orbitals destabilizes the orbitals by +0.6Δ0+0.6\Delta_0 and each electron in the t2gt_{2g} orbitals stabilizes the orbitals by −0.4Δ0-0.4\Delta_0 in an octahedral field on the basis of crystal field theory. Statement II: All the d-orbitals of the transition metals have the same energy in their free atomic state but when a complex is formed the ligands destroy the degeneracy of these orbitals on the basis of crystal field theory. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. C.Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. D.Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct answer: A

Question 62

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: Statement I: On the basis of inductive effect, the order of stability of alkyl carbanions is CH3−>CH3−CH2−>(CH3)2CH−>(CH3)3C−\mathrm{CH_3^->CH_3-CH_2^->(CH_3)_2CH^->(CH_3)_3C^-}. Statement II: Allyl and benzyl carbanions are more stabilised by inductive effect and not by resonance effect. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. C.Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. D.Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct answer: C

Question 63

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

"P" is a hydrocarbon of molecular formula: C8H14\mathrm{C_8H_{14}}. On ozonolysis, "P" forms "Q". "Q" on treatment with alkali under reflux condition produces "R", which on treatment with I2\mathrm{I_2}/NaOH gives a yellow precipitate. Acidification of the solution gives "S". The structure of "S" is 2-methylcyclopent-1-ene-1-carboxylic acid (cyclopentene ring with CH3\mathrm{CH_3} on one alkene carbon and COOH on the other). The correct structure of "P" is

  1. A.3,6-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene (CH3 on the two sp3 ring carbons that flank the ring C=C)
  2. B.1-ethylcyclohex-1-ene
  3. C.1-ethyl-2-methylcyclopent-1-ene
  4. D.1,2-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene

Correct answer: D

Question 64

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

For the following Friedel Craft's alkylation reaction, which of the statements are correct? Benzene + 1-chloropropane →anhydrous AlCl3\xrightarrow{\text{anhydrous }\mathrm{AlCl_3}} Alkylbenzene. A. Major product is n-propyl benzene. B. iso-propyl carbocation intermediate is also generated. C. Multiple substitution is inevitable. D. Introducing electron-donating substituent on benzene will not produce any alkyl benzene. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A and D only
  2. B.B and C only
  3. C.A and C only
  4. D.B and D only

Correct answer: B

Question 65

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained from A. Benzyl bromide + AgCN B. Benzylamine + CHCl3\mathrm{CHCl_3}/aq NaOH C. Bromobenzene + AgCN D. Aniline + CHCl3\mathrm{CHCl_3}/aq NaOH E. (2-Bromoethyl)benzene + KCN. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A and B Only
  2. B.A and C Only
  3. C.B and D Only
  4. D.D and E Only

Correct answer: A

Question 66

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Consider compounds A, B and C with following structural formulae A = CH3−CH2−CH2−CH2−CH2−OH\mathrm{CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-OH}, B = CH2=CH−CH2−CH2−CH3\mathrm{CH_2=CH-CH_2-CH_2-CH_3}, C = HO−CH2−CH2−CH(OH)−CH3\mathrm{HO-CH_2-CH_2-CH(OH)-CH_3}. For the conversion of B from A, reagent (D) required is ______ and structural formula of product (E) obtained when C undergoes same reaction using excess reagent (D) is ______.

  1. A.D = Conc. H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4}; E = CH2=CH−CH(OH)CH3\mathrm{CH_2=CH-CH(OH)CH_3}
  2. B.D = PCC; E = HO−CH2−CH2−CH=CH2\mathrm{HO-CH_2-CH_2-CH=CH_2}
  3. C.D = PCC; E = CH2=CH−CH=CH2\mathrm{CH_2=CH-CH=CH_2}
  4. D.D = Conc. H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4} or H3PO4\mathrm{H_3PO_4}; E = CH2=CH−CH=CH2\mathrm{CH_2=CH-CH=CH_2}

Correct answer: D

Question 67

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Identify the incorrect statements. A. Benzylamine is a stronger base than aniline. B. 4-Methoxyaniline can be synthesized by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. C. 2-Phenylacetamide (C6H5CH2CONH2\mathrm{C_6H_5CH_2CONH_2}) →Br2, NaOH\xrightarrow{\mathrm{Br_2,\ NaOH}} primary aromatic amine. D. 4-Nitroaniline →(i) NaNO2, HCl, 0∘C; (ii) Δ\xrightarrow{\mathrm{(i)\ NaNO_2,\ HCl,\ 0^\circ C;\ (ii)\ \Delta}} product will dissolve in NaOH. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A and D Only
  2. B.A and C Only
  3. C.B and C Only
  4. D.A and B Only

Correct answer: C

Question 68

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Identify the correct statements. A. Glucose exists in two anomeric forms. B. Anomers of glucose differ in configuration at C$-$1 in cyclic hemiacetal structure. C. Melting point of α\alpha-anomer of glucose is greater than β\beta-anomer. D. Specific rotation of α\alpha-anomer is +19° while for β\beta-anomer is +112° E. α\alpha and β\beta-anomers of glucose are prepared by crystallization of saturated glucose solution at 303 K and 371 K respectively. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.A and B Only
  2. B.B and C Only
  3. C.A, B and D Only
  4. D.A, B and E Only

Correct answer: D

Question 69

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Sodium dichromate and potassium dichromate are classified as primary standards in titrimetric analysis. Statement II: Phenolphthalein is a weak base, therefore it dissociates in acidic medium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct answer: B

Question 70

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

Consider the following species: BrF5,XeF5−,BF4−,ICl4−,XeF4,SF4,NH4+,ClF3,XeF2,ICl2−\mathrm{BrF_5, XeF_5^-, BF_4^-, ICl_4^-, XeF_4, SF_4, NH_4^+, ClF_3, XeF_2, ICl_2^-}. Number of species having sp3dsp^3d hybridized central atom is ______.

Correct answer: 4

Question 71

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

One mole of phenol is treated with dilute HNO3\mathrm{HNO_3} at 298 K to give a mixture of products. The mixture is separated by steam distillation. The steam volatile compound (X) is separated. The increase in percentage of oxygen in (X) with respect to phenol is ______ ×10−1\times10^{-1} % (Given molar mass in g mol−1\mathrm{mol^{-1}} H:1, C:12, N:14, O:16)

Correct answer: 175

Question 72

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

The values of pressure equilibrium constant recorded at different temperatures for the following equilibrium reaction have been given below: A(g)⇌B(g)+C(g)\mathrm{A(g)\rightleftharpoons B(g)+C(g)}. 1T\frac1T (K−1\mathrm{K^{-1}}) : log⁡10Kp\log_{10}K_p = 0.05 : 3.5; 0.06 : 2.5; 0.07 : 1.5. The magnitude of ΔH∘R\frac{\Delta H^\circ}{R} calculated from the above data is ______. (Nearest integer)

Correct answer: 230

Question 73

Chemistry · 4 marks · −1

If the half life of a first order reaction is 6.93 minutes then the time required for completion of 99% of the reaction will be ______ minutes. (Given : log 2 = 0.3010)

Correct answer: 46

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